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Jan 7, 2022 at 1:02 history edited Perry Webb CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 6, 2022 at 22:59 history edited Perry Webb CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 6, 2022 at 21:33 comment added Julian Newman Thank you, and apologies if my question isn't clear. In linguistics (or even, specifically in English), there isn't simply one "past tense" aspect. For the perfect tense of הָיָ֤ה, I've seen translations that have an ongoing past aspect "A vineyard was Solomon's" (i.e. Solomon had a vineyard), and I've seen translations that have an ongoing present [or a present-perfect] aspect "A vineyard is Solomon's" (i.e. Solomon has a vineyard). But now I am asking about the possibility of a past action aspect "A vineyard became Solomon's" (i.e. Solomon acquired a vineyard).
Jan 6, 2022 at 10:51 history edited Perry Webb CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 6, 2022 at 10:28 history answered Perry Webb CC BY-SA 4.0