As I understand it there is a difference in meaning in the Greek texts of Mark 1:2. Which leads to a difference in the NASB translation when compared to the KJV translation.

With the NASB translation starting off with "just as it is written in Isaiah the prophet:...", and the KJV starting off with "As it is written in the prophets...". I was wondering if anyone knew when the difference in meaning ("written in the prophets" as opposed to specifically being written in Isaiah) first appeared? I assume the NASB text version is earlier, but when did the KJV version appear? Did it appear before the Textus Receptus?

I hope this isn't considered off topic, as it does relate to meaning (as in the meaning of the verse). Thanks in advance for any replies.