Timeline for Does the Gospel of John teach Christian Universalism?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
13 events
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Nov 6, 2020 at 15:01 | comment | added | Sam | the same here! There will always be "agreement" when we all come to the Scripture! And that is Jesus prayed- "that they may be one", and mine, also. Praise the Lord! | |
Nov 6, 2020 at 7:32 | comment | added | Levan Gigineishvili | @Sam So good to agree in one light! | |
Nov 5, 2020 at 23:30 | comment | added | Sam | agreed! I might add, sound theology is also “an attitude” of love for “all,” wishing & believing the best for “all,” and speaking to “all” the good news of the Kingdom of God” as it is written in the Scripture. | |
Nov 3, 2020 at 3:29 | comment | added | Levan Gigineishvili | @Sam In sound theology there is an attitude: “If you do not hope and wish that all may be saved, you are not a servant of Christ who so wishes; but if you believe that all necessarily will be saved, you are a heretic”. | |
Nov 2, 2020 at 22:48 | comment | added | Sam | Gigineishvile As my first comment above makes it clear that the "Universalism" -as I reiterated for the purpose of clarification of the question, is UNBILICAl, and is heresy, and that is my answer to the question posed. I was just trying to identify the question and keep it separate from the efficacy of the Christ's atonement -I have NO problem with the aspect of "freely co-work" with His offer. | |
Nov 2, 2020 at 20:07 | comment | added | Levan Gigineishvili | @Sam Christ's atoning death is a sine qua non for salvation, nobody can be saved unless by the crucifixion of sins on the cross of Christ, unless by dying for the sin and living for Christ. But whether person accepts Christ in his life or not, is totally on the person's free initiative and will. Christ's grace or work will not save us unless we freely co-work with this work. God wants all to be saved through Christ, but not all will want and do what God wants them to do, for we are free to deny Him. | |
Nov 2, 2020 at 20:00 | comment | added | Sam | -Just for a clarification purpose only, the central tenet of the theory of Universalism is ‘eventually’ all persons/all humans (of all times) will be saved -a contention related to the problem of hell, which is the point of the question as posed. Your answer, as I perceive, is more on that God’s offer is intended for the universal atonement making salvation possible for all persons, but, the efficacy of Christ’s atoning death depends on the acceptance of the “lover offer” by a person with his free will. | |
Nov 2, 2020 at 17:56 | comment | added | Levan Gigineishvili | @Sam "God eventually saves all humans" is an old Origenistic heresy of "apokatastasis" - a heresy, because it downgrades human free will which can reject divine salvation, and thus according to the apokatastasis theory our free will is not really free, but kind of necessarily swayed eventually by divine love. But sound theology says that God loves and cannot but love all humans, having died for all of them, yet the acceptance of His horrible, unimaginable love and redeeming sacrifice is totally on our free response, for He coerces nobody. | |
Nov 2, 2020 at 17:28 | comment | added | Sam | It seems the first need to be more specific, if “universalism” should mean God saves all humans or God eventually saves all humans, and also if the “His love” we can reject refers to His love for the "righteous and the unrighteous" as in Matthew 5: 45 or Romans 5:8 and John 3:16. | |
Nov 2, 2020 at 12:42 | history | edited | Levan Gigineishvili | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Nov 2, 2020 at 12:37 | history | edited | Levan Gigineishvili | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Nov 2, 2020 at 5:16 | history | edited | Levan Gigineishvili | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Nov 2, 2020 at 4:15 | history | answered | Levan Gigineishvili | CC BY-SA 4.0 |