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Levan Gigineishvili
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The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still the Judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is a more general category - in the sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves through the breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a sacrilegious calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and exactly through this free rejection self-inflict the condemnation on ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding; for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still the Judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is a more general category - in the sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves through the breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a sacrilegious calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and exactly through this free rejection self-inflict the condemnation ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding; for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still the Judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is a more general category - in the sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves through the breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a sacrilegious calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and exactly through this free rejection self-inflict the condemnation on ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding; for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

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Levan Gigineishvili
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The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still a judgethe Judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is a more general category - in the sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves fromthrough the breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a sacrilegious calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and condemnexactly through this free rejection self-inflict the condemnation ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding,notwithstanding; for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still a judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is more general category - in sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves from breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and condemn ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding, for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still the Judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is a more general category - in the sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves through the breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a sacrilegious calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and exactly through this free rejection self-inflict the condemnation ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding; for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

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Levan Gigineishvili
  • 11.4k
  • 1
  • 13
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The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still a judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is more general category - in sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves from breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and condemn ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding, for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still a judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is more general category - in sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves from breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and condemn ourselves His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding, for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

The question is a bit ambiguous, for it gives two quotes - John 1:29 an John 12:47 - which have quite different connotations: the first clearly shows that according to John Jesus' ministry is for the entire world and not just for one chosen nation of Jews, and there are quite a few passages in John that confirm the same. Thus, if in "universalism" is meant this, then of course, quite unambiguously, John's Gospel speaks about it.

However, the second quotation speaks about semantics of divine judgment and gives to this term a new twist, for we learn that Jesus who is God and equal to Father does not judge and neither does Father (John 5:22), but how then is God still a judge who will judge all mankind? When names are applied to God, they change meaning drastically, and thus, we learn that God-the Judge does not judge - and if does not judge, then also does not condemn, for condemning is just a portion of judgment, which is more general category - in sense that He only forgives, He only loves, He only forbears, infinitely so, for He cannot help loving His creatures created in His image and likeness. Yet, when we reject all those divine actions towards us, close our hearts from them, then we condemn ourselves from breach of communion with God and in a vulgar non-theological way this is called "God's condemnation", but, if one understands this vulgarly and in terms of positive human law-enforcement, one will obtain a calumny on all-merciful God, who in His own words "does judge nobody".

Thus, if in "universalism" is meant whether God saves all humans, then the answer is YES, He indeed saves all humans and cannot help saving them according to His nature, which can be defined as "love" (1 John 4:8), however, as being created free, we can reject His love and condemn ourselves, His infinite forgiveness notwithstanding, for such real and horrible our freedom and responsibility is.

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Levan Gigineishvili
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