Timeline for Why are the verbs in Jacob's vow (Genesis 28:20) translated so differently?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 1, 2021 at 11:31 | vote | accept | Derek | ||
| Jul 11, 2020 at 21:13 | comment | added | user17080 | Not all popular translations are of equal quality or accuracy. Caveat emptor. Compare the number of scholarly citations of Heinrich Friedrich Wilhelm Gesenius with that of Robert Young (if you can find any that is) and you will begin to get the picture. The former has standing in the academic world to this day. Der Übermensch's answer gives a good explanation that I would accept as the correct answer. Also, note that there is usually an inverse relationship between the strength of adherence to a particular OT translation and the strength of the adherent's knowledge of Hebrew. | |
| Jul 9, 2020 at 9:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1281151128365924354 | ||
| Jul 8, 2020 at 10:37 | comment | added | Nigel J | Excellent question +1. Thank you for pointing this out. The answer below has improved my understanding of that particular text, which had always troubled me, somewhat. | |
| Jul 8, 2020 at 5:08 | answer | added | Der Übermensch | timeline score: 8 | |
| Jul 8, 2020 at 3:50 | review | First posts | |||
| Jul 14, 2020 at 8:03 | |||||
| Jul 8, 2020 at 3:48 | history | asked | Derek | CC BY-SA 4.0 |