Timeline for How are we to take the fact that Lot offered his daughters for rape?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
22 events
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Mar 10, 2020 at 1:47 | comment | added | Lucian | Orgiastic expressions were quite common in ancient paganism, where they persisted until the early Christian era. (Recall that Lot lived in pre-Mozaic, not to mention pre-Christian, times). Also, daughters were given in marriage be their parents. (The same then also applies to other acts of physical intimacy, not necessarily monogamous in nature, such as the one described in the aforementioned passage). | |
Apr 19, 2019 at 14:11 | answer | added | Ozzie Ozzie | timeline score: 0 | |
Apr 18, 2019 at 4:20 | answer | added | AngelusVastator | timeline score: 0 | |
Aug 17, 2018 at 12:27 | answer | added | enegue | timeline score: -1 | |
Aug 4, 2017 at 3:01 | comment | added | Lucian | What kind of man offers his daughters for rape ? - What kind of Father offers His only begotten Son to be spit, beat, mocked, and crucified ? Or, to put it another way: Is a human being worth less if they are not related to us ? | |
Feb 12, 2016 at 3:45 | history | protected | CommunityBot | ||
Feb 10, 2016 at 15:31 | comment | added | user12132 | Let's also remember that later in this story, after the destruction of Sodom, his daughters get Lot drunk and convince him to sleep with them to continue the family line. Just saying. | |
Feb 7, 2016 at 18:30 | comment | added | user8377 | maybe they were ugly and/or sinfull.... later hints that | |
Feb 7, 2016 at 8:14 | answer | added | C. Taylor | timeline score: 2 | |
Jan 8, 2016 at 15:46 | vote | accept | John Demetriou | ||
Nov 6, 2014 at 8:25 | vote | accept | John Demetriou | ||
Jan 12, 2014 at 3:19 | answer | added | Tau | timeline score: 6 | |
Jan 1, 2013 at 6:46 | answer | added | Amichai | timeline score: 9 | |
Dec 21, 2012 at 3:00 | comment | added | Kazark | A wicked man offers his daughters to be raped. But the Bible speaks of many wicked people who do horrific things. So I'm not sure the point of the question. (The question could be strengthened by bringing a NT citation that calls him righteous. At that point you could tag it with contradiction.) | |
Dec 14, 2012 at 13:43 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackBibleHerm/status/279582453323137024 | ||
Dec 14, 2012 at 13:23 | answer | added | Mike | timeline score: 3 | |
Dec 12, 2012 at 11:36 | comment | added | John Demetriou | I did not know there was a similar post in christianity. thanks | |
Dec 11, 2012 at 22:21 | comment | added | Caleb | This has already been asked (here and here) on Christianity. I don't think the answers are very satisfactory but they do have some clues as to how Christians interpret the matter. | |
Dec 11, 2012 at 19:12 | comment | added | Jon Ericson | Hi John and welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics. I've edited the question a little and removed a parenthetical about the nature of God. (That bit might make a separate question, but since it's got a heavy doctrinal element, it's probably better for Christianity if it's not already been asked there.) I'm not 100% sure what you are asking in this question. Are you asking if offering daughters for rape is sanctioned by the text? Do you see some sort of contradiction? | |
Dec 11, 2012 at 19:11 | review | First posts | |||
Dec 21, 2012 at 3:01 | |||||
Dec 11, 2012 at 19:06 | history | edited | Jon Ericson | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Quoted the relevant text and removed the irrelevant aside.
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Dec 11, 2012 at 18:55 | history | asked | John Demetriou | CC BY-SA 3.0 |