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Mar 10, 2020 at 1:47 comment added Lucian Orgiastic expressions were quite common in ancient paganism, where they persisted until the early Christian era. (Recall that Lot lived in pre-Mozaic, not to mention pre-Christian, times). Also, daughters were given in marriage be their parents. (The same then also applies to other acts of physical intimacy, not necessarily monogamous in nature, such as the one described in the aforementioned passage).
Apr 19, 2019 at 14:11 answer added Ozzie Ozzie timeline score: 0
Apr 18, 2019 at 4:20 answer added AngelusVastator timeline score: 0
Aug 17, 2018 at 12:27 answer added enegue timeline score: -1
Aug 4, 2017 at 3:01 comment added Lucian What kind of man offers his daughters for rape ? - What kind of Father offers His only begotten Son to be spit, beat, mocked, and crucified ? Or, to put it another way: Is a human being worth less if they are not related to us ?
Feb 12, 2016 at 3:45 history protected CommunityBot
Feb 10, 2016 at 15:31 comment added user12132 Let's also remember that later in this story, after the destruction of Sodom, his daughters get Lot drunk and convince him to sleep with them to continue the family line. Just saying.
Feb 7, 2016 at 18:30 comment added user8377 maybe they were ugly and/or sinfull.... later hints that
Feb 7, 2016 at 8:14 answer added C. Taylor timeline score: 2
Jan 8, 2016 at 15:46 vote accept John Demetriou
Nov 6, 2014 at 8:25 vote accept John Demetriou
Jan 12, 2014 at 3:19 answer added Tau timeline score: 6
Jan 1, 2013 at 6:46 answer added Amichai timeline score: 9
Dec 21, 2012 at 3:00 comment added Kazark A wicked man offers his daughters to be raped. But the Bible speaks of many wicked people who do horrific things. So I'm not sure the point of the question. (The question could be strengthened by bringing a NT citation that calls him righteous. At that point you could tag it with contradiction.)
Dec 14, 2012 at 13:43 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackBibleHerm/status/279582453323137024
Dec 14, 2012 at 13:23 answer added Mike timeline score: 3
Dec 12, 2012 at 11:36 comment added John Demetriou I did not know there was a similar post in christianity. thanks
Dec 11, 2012 at 22:21 comment added Caleb This has already been asked (here and here) on Christianity. I don't think the answers are very satisfactory but they do have some clues as to how Christians interpret the matter.
Dec 11, 2012 at 19:12 comment added Jon Ericson Hi John and welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics. I've edited the question a little and removed a parenthetical about the nature of God. (That bit might make a separate question, but since it's got a heavy doctrinal element, it's probably better for Christianity if it's not already been asked there.) I'm not 100% sure what you are asking in this question. Are you asking if offering daughters for rape is sanctioned by the text? Do you see some sort of contradiction?
Dec 11, 2012 at 19:11 review First posts
Dec 21, 2012 at 3:01
Dec 11, 2012 at 19:06 history edited Jon Ericson CC BY-SA 3.0
Quoted the relevant text and removed the irrelevant aside.
Dec 11, 2012 at 18:55 history asked John Demetriou CC BY-SA 3.0