>εἰ (**if**) γὰρ (**indeed**) ὁ (**the**) δι’ (**through**) ἀγγέλων (**messangers**) λαληθεὶς (**having been spoken**) λόγος (**word**) ἐγένετο (**was**) βέβαιος (**firm**), καὶ (**and**) πᾶσα (**all**) παράβασις (**transgression**) καὶ (**and**) παρακοὴ (**disobedience**) ἔλαβεν (**recieved**) ἔνδικον (**a just**) μισθαποδοσίαν (**recompense**)

>πῶς (**how**) ἡμεῖς (**we**) ἐκφευξόμεθα (**will escape**) τηλικαύτης (**such a great**) ἀμελήσαντες (**having neglected**) σωτηρίας (**of deliverance**); ἥτις (**which**) ἀρχὴν (**first**) λαβοῦσα (**having recieved**) λαλεῖσθαι (**to be declared**) διὰ (**through**) τοῦ (**the**) κυρίου (**lord**), ὑπὸ (**under**) τῶν (**those**) ἀκουσάντων (**having heard**) εἰς (**unto**) ἡμᾶς (**us**) ἐβεβαιώθη (**it was confirmed**)

>συνεπιμαρτυροῦντος (**bearing witness**) τοῦ (**of the**) Θεοῦ (**God**) σημείοις (**by signs**) τε (**both**) καὶ (**and**) τέρασιν (**by wonders**) καὶ (**and**) ποικίλαις (**by various**) δυνάμεσιν (**miracles**) καὶ (**and**) Πνεύματος (**of a spirit**) Ἁγίου (**set-apart**) μερισμοῖς (**by distributions**) κατὰ (**according to**) τὴν (**of the**) αὐτοῦ (**him**) θέλησιν (**will**)

This is a long passage, so I have a few questions if that's okay. 

Is it possible that the ἀγγέλων are the prophets?

Could "the Lord" be YHVH, and the author is saying the message of the Scriptures is now confirmed?

Concerning v. 4, most translations say something along the lines of:

>God **also** bearing [them] witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?

However, when the author says τε καὶ, it always means "both and", but the translators put καὶ after God and τε as the only conjunction between "signs" and "wonders". 

So is God the one bearing witness, or are the signs and wonders (or something else) bearing witness **of God** (especially since τοῦ Θεοῦ is genitive)?