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Aug 28, 2014 at 6:09 answer added Tau timeline score: 1
Aug 25, 2014 at 18:52 history edited Jack Douglas CC BY-SA 3.0
trying to make the title more catchy and searchable
Aug 25, 2014 at 15:25 answer added Joseph timeline score: 2
Aug 25, 2014 at 14:06 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackBibleHerm/status/503906172261658625
Aug 25, 2014 at 12:07 history edited Jack Douglas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 25, 2014 at 12:01 history edited Jack Douglas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 25, 2014 at 12:01 comment added Tau It's clear that Paul saw the context figuratively(Rom. 16:20), and from there we can rightly determine if the text was meant 'literal' vs 'figurative'.
Aug 25, 2014 at 11:52 comment added Jack Douglas The particular issue of interest to me is the connection with Genesis 1 - as long as answers address that I'm likely to find them useful I think
Aug 25, 2014 at 11:49 comment added Tau Then I would have even a greater challenge, because the context suggests a "Figurative" interpretation-unless somebody can find an instance where 'serpents'(ie:snakes) walked, and now they don't. If there's no evidence of "de-evolvement"(none that I know of in Scripture), then it's pretty clear God was talking to Satan, which takes us to a "figurative", rather than "Literal" interpretation.
Aug 25, 2014 at 11:39 comment added Jack Douglas I'm not asking about those issues directly - I don't mind if an answer addresses them if the logic stems from the question I am asking though. fwiw I think that is more likely on the issue of the physical form of the serpent than the identification with 'satan'.
Aug 25, 2014 at 11:35 comment added Tau Oh boy, you are opening a can of worms here... Are we determining whether the context is Literal or Figurative, and whether or not the 'serpent' is a mere reptile, or the embodiment of Satan?
Aug 25, 2014 at 10:40 history edited Jack Douglas CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 24, 2014 at 14:57 history asked Jack Douglas CC BY-SA 3.0