Why does St Paul attribute humility to incarnation of Son of God in human likeness, given the glorification of human form in Gen 1?

Question

We read in Gen 1:26-28 how man was made in God's likeness and image. We also read in Phil 2:6-7 (NIV):

Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage; rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself...

My question is : Why does St Paul attribute humility to incarnation of Son of God in human likeness, given the glorification of human form in Gen 1 ?

Answer 1

The answer to this question is found in two passages of the NT:

• Heb 1 discusses that Jesus was MUCH greater than the angels
• Heb 2:6, 7 - ... What is man that You are mindful of him, or the son of man that You care for him? You made him a little lower than the angels; You crowned him with glory and honor ...

Thus, the humiliation of Jesus would have been still significant if He had descended to the level of a mighty angel; but Jesus' humiliation was to the lower level of humans according to Phil 2:5-8.

However, Jesus' humiliation was even greater than just becoming a human - He also became subject to death, even the very ignominious death on a cross!!

The "glorification" (a word not used in Gen 1) of humans in Gen 1 is a simple statement of the nobility of humans as humans and their ability to procreate by "being fruitful and multiplying". Actually, the image of God in humans is clearly stated as follows:

• the ability to procreate
• the (delegated) authority to rule earth and its creatures (as deputies of God)

Now, while these delegated abilities in the image of God were granted as creation, they are only small shadows of the much greater abilities of God who created them. Thus, humans have some of the image of God but are certainly not equal with God.

By contrast, Jesus, according to Phil 2:9-11 was much greater after his incarnation:

Therefore God exalted Him to the highest place and gave Him the name above all names, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

That is, Jesus was restored to His former place of honor just as He requested in John 17:5 -

And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed.

John summarizes this when he says about Jesus vs humans:

John 3:31 - The One who comes from above is above all. The one who is from the earth belongs to the earth and speaks as one from the earth. The One who comes from heaven is above all.

Answer 2

Short Answer There had been thousands of years of human history between the Garden of Eden man at the beginning of time...and mankind of the first century that had demonstrated an extremely fallen nature over and over again throughout the centuries.

Jesus, the pristine holy, divine Son of God, had to identify with mankind's humility in order to fulfil the redemptive process.

Jesus arrived from Galilee at the Jordon coming to John to be baptized by him. But John tried to prevent Him, saying, "I have need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?"
But Jesus answered and said to him, "Permit it at this time for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness." (Matthew 3:13-15)

Jesus took off His majestic robes of Divinity and clothed Himself with human flesh...an extreme form of degrading...and yet He managed to do it without sin. [This was a very tricky balancing act: of man and yet not tainted by humanity.]

Note that Paul stated in Romans that man has come short of the glory of God (Romans 3:23) Mankind lost the glory of Eden!

[Note the Chinese symbol (radical) for fire. It is the symbol of "man" with sparks, referring to the original man and his glory. But the symbol for "man" today is simply the radical of man without the sparks; i.e. without the Shekinah glory!]

Answer 3

v8: Death on a Roman cross

The question is about why Paul specifically thought Jesus was humble on account of the incarnation.

Let's review a different translation of the full text:

Phil 2:6-8 (NASB emphasis added)

⁶ who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, ⁷ but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. ⁸ Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.

Two points answer the question:

1. the verb humble can be translated empty

The Greek verb κενόω (kenoó, Strong's 2758) means "empty". The NIV and a many others, including the pre-1995 NASB, say "humble". Regardless of our English choice of translation, this concept of humility included the ides of "emptying oneself", not necessarily our English culture's view.

2. v7: form of a servant; v8: death on a cross

These are definitely things relating to humility or "emptying oneself".

• He was born in a barn (Luke 2:7-12)
• He washed the disciples' feet, the job of a servant (John 13:8)

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Incarnation vs Glory

The above is an explanation from Paul about why Paul thought what Paul thought.

As for the matter of the relationship, how the incarnation was any kind of "emptying" himself [from something before]...

Before Earth was made, Jesus was in a state of glory in the presence of the Father, even before creation, which we saw a glimpse of at his transfiguration on the mount.

John 17:5 (NASB)

Now, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world was.

Matt 17:2 (NASB)

And He was transfigured before them; and His face shone like the sun, and His garments became as white as light.

Answer 4

Genesis 1 speaks of God creating man in his image and likeness. That image quickly became marred. It soon became distorted. At this point it helps to stop to think what it was that became marred and distorted in humanity.

We know there is nothing marred or distorted about the Creator. He is glorious beyond compare. Here are two very helpful definitions I read from two Hebrew scholars as to what God's glory is:

"'Glory' is the radiation of God's character. It might be visible - as it was inside the holy of holies. It might be partially visible, being represented by angels, as it was to Moses. It might be known only by faith, as in 'we beheld his glory.' The 'glory' of God in Israel and in the life of the Christian is also the radiance in the life of the nation or in the life of the Christian. He is being changed 'from one level of glory to another' in this world, and his final 'glorification' will be [when] the holiness of his life becomes visible . In more than one sense, 'the glory departs' when God's people sin." Hosea, Michael Eaton, p.145, Christian Focus, 1996

Regarding the role of the Messiah in 'the knowledge of the glory of the Lord' filling the Earth (Isaiah 48:11):

"His 'glory' is the visible manifestation of what God is in himself. His divine attributes are not directly accessible to human scrutiny... That Old Testament presentation has been eclipsed by the revelation of his Son who is 'the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being' (Hebrews 1:3). Not only did his disciples see 'his glory, the glory of the only-begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth' (John 1:14), but this is also the privilege of all those into whose hearts God has made his light to shine, 'to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Christ' (2 Corinthians 4:6). Our vision here is often obscured, but there is still the eternal glory to come in which enjoyment of all that God is will not be clouded over or marred in any way." Habakkuk, John L. Mackay, pp.211-2, Christian Focus, 1998

This answer focuses on what glory (and, therefore, glorification) is. Christ's glory and his glorification has not got to do "with what the human form is", as the question puts it. It has to do with the relationship between the eternal Son and the Father, in the godhead. The Son is 'the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his being' (Hebrews 1:3). But, in order to appear on Earth as the human, Jesus, his glory had to be veiled. That required the Son abasing himself to be a servant on Earth, humiliated and crucified, before then being exalted to heaven again. Even so, his disciples got an awesome view of that human aspect of Christ radiating forth the glory of His Father.

I hope that looking at the question from the aspect of God's glorious character radiating forth from Christ gets the focus adjusted so we grasp what the Son had to do in order to show forth God's glorious character while he was on Earth. He is the focus we need to grasp how we are to appreciate the glory of God's character - we see that in Christ.

Answer 5

Did Paul really attribute humility to incarnation of Son of God? Let us examine Philippians 2:6.

How could Jesus empty himself and still be God? How could he empty himself of being eternal? Jesus own statement tells us Jesus died. Revelation 1:18. This verse clearly show that Jesus is not immortal and eternal. Jesus points to his God as the source of his life. John 6:57. There is no verse in the bible that shows that the son of God died only physically. The bible shows that the Father/God as the only one who is immortal 1 Timothy 1:17

If Jesus being in the form of God means he is God, why did Paul say that Jesus did not want to rob, seize or take by force at being God? This would be the same as trying to be what he already was.

Some say that Paul is saying that Jesus did not continue to hold on to his equality with God but he voluntarily emptied himself to become a man. If this is true, what did Jesus empty himself of while remaining fully God. What qualities of God did Jesus empty himself of? How can Jesus be omnipotent if he prayed to be spared from his execution and later strengthened by an angel, Luke 22:43. If Jesus emptied himself of omnipotence, is he still 100% God?

Philippians 2:6 shows that Jesus did not grasp at equality with God, yet this is clearly what others do. They impose on Jesus what he clearly refused. Others claim that Jesus left the divine glory that he originally enjoyed and claimed it back, citing John 17:5 and Philippians 2:9-11.

A careful reading of Philippians 2:6-11 show nothing about Jesus returning to the glory he originally had. What we find in Philippians 2:9 is "Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name;"

If Jesus is receiving again what he already had would make his being "highly exalted by God of no meaning. The Incarnation is a postulation that is self-contradictory. Thus, this question is based on an assumption that is not logical.