User Lowther

9 votes

5 answers

977 views

What does Paul mean by "Christ is the end of the law for righteousness" in Rom 10:4?

asked Dec 19, 2018 at 13:16

5 votes

1 answer

189 views

In Psalm 23:6 why is the word God /θεοῦ added in the LXX but lacking in the Hebrew Psalm 24:6 in it's equivalent אלהים?

asked Jan 7, 2019 at 23:09

5 votes

4 answers

281 views

Can a joint meaning of 'word of death' be derived for Isaiah 9:7 / 9:8 on account of the different words used in the Greek LXX and Hebrew Texts?

asked Feb 4, 2019 at 19:54

4 votes

1 answer

137 views

Don't we need Biblically definitive eisegesis to Exegete properly?

asked Nov 23, 2018 at 20:16

4 votes

2 answers

243 views

What is the object which "saves" in 1 Peter 3:21? and is it's context connected to v. 16 conscience

asked Sep 14, 2019 at 2:35

3 votes

4 answers

566 views

Are both references to "works" in Ephesians 2:8-10 the works of the Torah?

asked Dec 18, 2018 at 19:21

2 votes

2 answers

80 views

Grammatically speaking, Who is the 'father' of 1 Corinthians 4, etal?

asked Dec 30, 2018 at 20:06

2 votes

1 answer

344 views

Why is the indefinite aorist tense used in Luke 22:15 'With desire I have desired / 'Ἐπιθυμίᾳ ἐπεθύμησα?

asked Apr 16, 2019 at 13:21

2 votes

2 answers

228 views

Is unclean ακαθαρτος / ακαθαρτον in the NT the same as in the OT LXX of the Law (Pentateuch)?

asked May 17, 2019 at 2:28

2 votes

4 answers

227 views

What is an exegetical understanding of ἀντίχριστ- / anti-chist?

asked Jun 7, 2019 at 12:04

1 vote

1 answer

328 views

What is the significance of the aorist tense of γεννη in 1 Corinthians 4:15?

asked Dec 28, 2018 at 20:04

0 votes

6 answers

149 views

Eisegesis needed for correct exegeting of Scripture, with John 1:1-14 as question topic

asked Dec 7, 2018 at 20:39

0 votes

2 answers

349 views

What is a biblically probable understanding of 'the Lord's day'? [duplicate]

asked Dec 13, 2018 at 22:21

Stack Exchange Network

13 Questions

What does Paul mean by "Christ is the end of the law for righteousness" in Rom 10:4?

In Psalm 23:6 why is the word God /θεοῦ added in the LXX but lacking in the Hebrew Psalm 24:6 in it's equivalent אלהים?

Can a joint meaning of 'word of death' be derived for Isaiah 9:7 / 9:8 on account of the different words used in the Greek LXX and Hebrew Texts?

Don't we need Biblically definitive eisegesis to Exegete properly?

What is the object which "saves" in 1 Peter 3:21? and is it's context connected to v. 16 conscience

Are both references to "works" in Ephesians 2:8-10 the works of the Torah?

Grammatically speaking, Who is the 'father' of 1 Corinthians 4, etal?

Why is the indefinite aorist tense used in Luke 22:15 'With desire I have desired / 'Ἐπιθυμίᾳ ἐπεθύμησα?

Is unclean ακαθαρτος / ακαθαρτον in the NT the same as in the OT LXX of the Law (Pentateuch)?

What is an exegetical understanding of ἀντίχριστ- / anti-chist?

What is the significance of the aorist tense of γεννη in 1 Corinthians 4:15?

Eisegesis needed for correct exegeting of Scripture, with John 1:1-14 as question topic

What is a biblically probable understanding of 'the Lord's day'? [duplicate]