User 習約塔 - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange

習約塔

Member for 6 years, 4 months
Last seen more than a month ago

16 Answers

Score Activity Newest

3 votes

Matthew 5:16 vs 6:1 - show good deeds or not?

answered Jan 27, 2019 at 4:06

3 votes

How would one normally phrase “Our God and Savior Jesus Christ” in Koine Greek to refer to one person and two persons?

answered Jul 10, 2019 at 13:54

0 votes

Where should the pronoun ἡμῶν (our) be placed in Titus 2:13?

answered Jul 10, 2019 at 14:09

1 vote

In Leviticus 15:8 why are husband and wife unclean temporarily after emission of semen?

answered Dec 22, 2018 at 5:17

3 votes

Which water is Peter referring to in 2 Peter 3:5-7?

answered Jan 7, 2019 at 6:49

1 vote

In Genesis 1:31, what does “very good” mean?

answered Nov 16, 2018 at 1:41

3 votes

Was God's motive for barring man from eating of the "tree of knowledge" as given by the serpent true?

answered Nov 13, 2018 at 23:07

0 votes

In 1 Corinthians 1:1, is Paul a “called-apostle” or “called to be an apostle”?

answered Nov 15, 2018 at 5:21

0 votes

What is the "due penalty" mentioned in Romans 1:27?

answered Nov 15, 2018 at 6:37

1 vote

In Genesis 4:2-8 why did God not accept Cain's offering?

answered Nov 14, 2018 at 0:14

1 vote

In Judges 3:16 what is the length of a "gomed"?

answered Oct 31, 2018 at 15:12

2 votes

Is it good to "turn a slave into a son" in Proverbs 29:21?

answered Oct 31, 2018 at 4:31

1 vote

Accepted

In 1 Corinthians 11:20 to what does "ἐπὶ τὸ αὐτὸ" refer?

answered Oct 31, 2018 at 5:34

2 votes

Does the suggestion that people were fighting over the food at "the Lord's supper" in 1 Corinthians 11:21 indicate that it was an actual meal?

answered Oct 20, 2018 at 6:43

1 vote

Does 1 Corinthians 10:18-22 contradict 1 Corinthians 8:4-13?

answered Oct 9, 2018 at 22:34

1 vote

In John 4:18 is Jesus accusing the woman at the well of fornication or of adultery?

answered Oct 9, 2018 at 17:47