User Ed Dudek - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange

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Ed Dudek

Member for 5 years, 8 months
Last seen more than 4 years ago

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14 Answers

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2 votes

Is the phrase "sin shall no longer be your master" in Romans 6:14 a command?

answered Oct 5, 2017 at 13:40

2 votes

Did Paul contradict himself on the works/faith dichotomy? (Romans 2:6-7 vs 4:4-5)

answered Dec 30, 2017 at 21:41

2 votes

In John 1:14 how can the Word be a Person?

answered Sep 20, 2018 at 22:41

1 vote

Is the usual translation of "ηὐχόμην" as "I could wish" justified in Romans 9:3?

answered Dec 30, 2017 at 20:50

1 vote

What is the sense of περἰ in Romans 8:3?

answered Oct 21, 2017 at 18:58

1 vote

In Romans 12:1 - What is "Therefore" there for?

answered Dec 29, 2017 at 18:39

1 vote

Accepted

In Romans 8:2 what is "the law of sin and death"?

answered Sep 17, 2017 at 1:15

0 votes

What is the role of "glory" in Romans 6:4?

answered Sep 17, 2017 at 1:32

0 votes

Is there a difference between "the sin" and "sin" in Romans?

answered Oct 5, 2017 at 13:50

0 votes

In what sense is sin said to increase (πλεονάζω) by the introduction of the Law in Romans 5:20?

answered Feb 11, 2018 at 22:42

0 votes

Does the inner man refer to the mind in Romans 7?

answered Feb 11, 2018 at 23:03

0 votes

Romans 8:11 - present or future?

answered Dec 30, 2017 at 20:43

-1 votes

In Romans 6:16 why does Paul say that obedience leads to righteousness, when righteousness is God's freely given gift?

answered Feb 15, 2018 at 1:32

-1 votes

In Romans 8:9 are the "spirit of Christ" and the "spirit of God" the same "spirit"?

answered Mar 23, 2018 at 11:16