User David - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange

David

Member for 8 years, 4 months
Last seen more than a week ago

16 Answers

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2 votes

Regarding Asaph (אָ֫סָ֥ף ), why do digital versions of KJV Bible remove his name from Psalms 73-83?

answered Aug 23, 2020 at 11:25

1 vote

What logical, biblical or exegetical reason is there for referring to the 'Word' as Jesus before Jesus was born?

answered May 23, 2020 at 20:54

1 vote

Was John criticizing the synoptics in Gethsemane?

answered May 29, 2020 at 13:29

0 votes

Is there any proof that the word elohim, when it denotes gods, is taken to mean that these gods as having plurality of persons within themselves?

answered May 22, 2020 at 5:25

0 votes

What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?

answered May 22, 2020 at 6:17

0 votes

The fifth rib in Abner

answered May 22, 2020 at 9:22

0 votes

Did Judas have free will to reject Satan's temptation?

answered May 23, 2020 at 19:08

0 votes

(John 1:39) Significance of "almost the tenth hour"

answered May 23, 2020 at 20:16

0 votes

What does the book of Jasher refer to?

answered Nov 25, 2021 at 18:55

0 votes

Meaning of (et)"את" and (v'et)"וְאֵ֥ת" in Genesis 1:1

answered Dec 12, 2021 at 17:54

0 votes

"Be Perfect" (Mt. 5:48) - a stand-alone commandment, a summary of the Sermon on the Mount, or the conclusion of the teaching on loving one's enemy?

answered Mar 26 at 7:57

-1 votes

Is the Bible saying that the earth has pillars?

answered Sep 3, 2020 at 4:32

-1 votes

Which beast does the number 666 represent

answered Aug 22, 2020 at 21:21

-1 votes

Does 1st Kings say that pi = 3?

answered May 30, 2020 at 15:24

-2 votes

What logical, biblical or exegetical reason is there for referring to the 'Word' as Jesus before Jesus was born?

answered May 29, 2020 at 11:33

-3 votes

Why does Matthew 28:19 say "in the name" and then proceed to give three names?

answered May 30, 2020 at 18:37