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NKJB 1 John 5: 18a We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; The main verb is: does not keep on sinning ἁμαρτάνει (hamartanei) Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Singular Strong's 264: Perhaps from a and the base of meros; properly, to miss the mark, i.e. to err, especially to sin. The secondary verb is the participle: born γεγεννημένος (...


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The answer to this question is actually in 1 John 2:15 but before dealing with that let me set out what we are discussing in 1 John 4:8 The one not loving has not known God, because God is love. Note that here we have both the noun and verb cognate forms of love: ἀγαπάω (agapaó) - verb meaning "I love, wish well to, take pleasure in, long for; ...


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1 John 4: 7 Dear friends, let us love one another, for love comes from God. The objects of this love are friendly brothers. The source of this love is God. Everyone who loves has been born of God and knows God. 8Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. On the other hand, 2 Timonty 4: 10a for Demas, because he loved this world, has ...


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The etymology of "Πειραζω" in greek has the same root as "πειραμα" which means experiment. (it also has the same root with "πειρα" which is experience). In both accounts the meaning is consistent (at least in in greek). "Πειραζω" could also be translated as prodding, or testing something to see if its annoyed or how it ...


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Yes. Philip was ‘tempted’. The word used is ‘peirazō’ - which traditionally has been translated as ‘tempted’ when the context seemed to suggest that, example Jesus’s temptation in the wilderness. But, having said that, ‘tempt’ or ‘temptation’ (depending on the form of peirazō that’s used) is arguably a ‘weak’ translation. Maybe not years ago, but these days ...


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James qualified the testing with κακῶν (with evil). In English we say tempted rather than tested with evil. Thus, κακῶν qualifies the meaning of πειράζω in this passage. Usually context makes this determination, but here James is very clear. In John 6:6 Jesus wasn't testing Philip with evil. In that respect Jesus tested Philip with good. As stated, Jesus ...


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John 6: 5 When Jesus looked up and saw a great crowd coming toward him, he said to Philip, “Where shall we buy bread for these people to eat?” 6He asked this only to test him, for he already had in mind what he was going to do. The Greek word peirazō is ambiguous, HELPS Word-studies: 3985 peirázō (from 3984 /peíra, "test, trial") – "...


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Isaiah 53: 4 Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering, yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted. But what about the word "our" in verse 4? Isaiah was speaking to the people of Israel, right? Right, that's the narrow local context. Let's see the broader context, Isaiah 53:l 1 Who has believed our message and ...


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I’m pretty sure putting these New Testament passages together makes it clear: ‭‭John‬ ‭1:1‬ “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” ‭‭I Timothy‬ ‭6:13-16‬ “I urge you in the sight of God who gives life to all things, and before Christ Jesus who witnessed the good confession before Pontius Pilate, that you keep ...


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Overview Purpose The Greek word that is translated as “God” or as "god" is theos (Θεός Strong number 2315). This Greek word has survived in English words such as "theology" and "theism." Of the 1314 times that theos is found in the New Testament, there are about seven instances where Jesus is referred to as theos. There are ...


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First-born – πρωτότοκον – implies that others are to follow. The significance of “firstborn” has its roots in the Old Testament. Being the firstborn son carried prestige, honor, privilege, blessing, authority, preeminence, and double portion inheritance. Being the firstborn was also a matter of consecration to God, Exodus 13:3,11-16. “First-born” defines the ...


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The phrase in both Acts 2:17 and John 17:2 is identical except for the word order, which makes no difference here. πάσης σαρκός (pases sarkos) = all flesh. The matter at hand is to decide what πᾶς (pass) = "all" includes, as the maning in the Greek is rarely universal but actually means, "all" in the implied class of objects, see BDAG. ...


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ESV Acts 2: 17 And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit on all flesh, and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy. Did God pour out his Spirit on horses, snails, and such in the days of Acts? No. They had whatever spirit that they had before. This is hyperbole. NIV: 17“ ‘In the last days, God says, I will pour out ...


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Mar 4: 38 Jesus was sleeping at the back of the boat with his head on a cushion. The disciples woke him up, shouting, "Teacher, don't you care that we're going to drown?" The same Greek word for "care" is used in Luke 10: 40 But Martha was distracted by all the preparations that had to be made. She came to him and asked, “Lord, don’t ...


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The Greek word protokos (Strong's 4416) conveys the meaning of first-begotten (from the root Strong's 4413) foremost in time or place, before, beginning. So in Col. 1:15, The Word (Jesus) is being identified as the first, the initial creation of God. The beginning of his creative acts. This is clear by the words, firstborn of every creature KJ, creation AS. ...


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What does "receive" mean in John 1:12? "But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God." John 1:12-13 ESV A. "Received" John 1:11-12 NASB 11 He came to His [a]own, and His own ...


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The concept of ‘firstborn’ is a crucial one. And an understanding of this concept is important. You are asking about a natural aspect of ‘firstborn’, but what’s needed is the conceptual understanding. Biblically, the firstborn is not so much a chronological term - although it does include this, rather it is a spiritual feature. Namely, that whatever is first,...


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It is the common Greek word for receive, and is aorist, active, indicative, 3rd person singular, apparently referencing a single action. λαμβάνω is used 258 times in 243 verse of the New Testament. John 1;12 equates "received him" with "believed in his name." To the Hebrew is name equals the person with the name. Hashem (Hebrew for ...


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In John 1:11 the word 'receive' is applied collectively, to a group of people "who received him not" - His own people (Israel). The next verse uses the word 'receive' individually - to each individual who did receive him. However, it was receiving by faith that was involved (which is why those people in verse 11 did not receive Jesus - they had no ...


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John 1:12-13: But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God. did receive ἔλαβον (elabon) Verb - Aorist Indicative Active - 3rd Person Plural Strong's 2983: (a) I receive, get, (b) I take, lay hold of. The ...


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Can "firstborn" really have nothing to do with chronology? Answer: It depends. First, we must understand that, outside of Christ, we are all spiritually dead. This is a very interesting question because, as noted by other contributors (quite extensively), the term "firstborn" represents many, varied aspects in the Old Testament. However, ...


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I assume the OP is referring to the Greek word πρωτότοκος (prototokos) which, according to BDAG has the following meanings: literally, pertaining to birth order, firstborn Gen 4:4 (LXX) - while Abel brought the best portions of the firstborn of his flock. And the LORD looked with favor on Abel and his offering, Gen 25:25 (LXX) - And the firstborn came out ...


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Jeremiah 31:9 They shall come with weeping, And with supplications I will lead them. I will cause them to walk by the rivers of waters, In a straight way in which they shall not stumble; For I am a Father to Israel, And Ephraim is My firstborn


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https://biblehub.com/hebrew/6445.htm Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance says of the form, מְפַנֵּ֣ק מפנק mə·p̄an·nêq mefanNek məp̄annêq bring up - A primitive root; to enervate - bring up. Upbringing with a purpose would be done by a master with an eye to the future of a child servant. Perhaps an orphan who (in Roman times) could be adopted into the master’...


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When I looked up the word PANAQ it gave the meaning as to indulge or to pamper which makes sense in context of the proverb. In other words if you indulge and pamper a servant he'll end up thinking he's your son instead of your servant. He becomes thankless for all the indulgences you gave him. You no longer have a servant now because you have someone who ...


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As revealed in the comments below your question, you seem to have a mistaken impression of "θεος". This word is simply a countable noun that can be used as a title just like the word "king". Just like the king of Israel could be called "the king" by the Israelites, without implying that he is "the one true king" (the ...


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The answer is trivially obvious from the Greek text itself, and there is no need for any so-called "textual criticism" (which is not objective by the way). John 1:18 is: θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε μονογενης θεος ο ων εις τον κολπον του πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο [The] god no one has ever seen. [The] only-begotten/unique god who is in the bosom of ...


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The original text did not have punctuation or spaces, so it would be wriiten like this: θεὸνοὐδεὶςἑώρακενπώποτεμονογενὴςθεὸςὁὢνεἰςτὸνκόλποντοῦπατρὸςἐκεῖνοςἐξηγήσατο The center is ὢν and the sequence θεὸςὁὢν when read as θεὸς-ὁ-ὢν recalls how the Greek Old Testament records YHVH identifying Himself to Moses: And God said to Moyses, "I am the One Who ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? By the wording of the question, the OP is of the assumption that John 1:1c's Greek word ordering in English is:- ...and the Word was God... When in actual fact the word order is:- ...and God was the Word... One only has to look at the ...


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Taken from Apologetics Press Does the Hebrew Word Yōm Endorse an Old Earth? – Apologetics Press [Apologetics Press auxiliary writer Justin Rogers, PhD serves as an Associate Professor of Bible at Freed-Hardeman University. He holds an M.A. in New Testament from Freed-Hardeman University as well as an M.Phil. and Ph.D. in Hebraic, Judaic, and Cognate Studies ...


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The word μονογενὴς whether it's with θεὸς, υἱός, or by itself (see text commentary at end) refers to the Son, not the Father. Where that is obvious is among the textual critics. The textual critics on the committee for the NA28 decides based on objective textual evidence, as seen in the commentary at the end. However, some textual critics who claim to ...


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John 1:18 can monogenes theos refer to God? OP: I was asking if this part (the monogenes theos) of the sentence could refer to the first part of the sentence (No one has ever seen God) thus referring to God. Because most of the time people connect it with the second part of the verse the one being in the bosom. I was asking about the punctuation you see? Yes,...


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The act of sacrifice is motivated by love, 2 Corinthians 5: 14 For Christ’s love compels us, because we are convinced that one died for all, and therefore all died. "all" refers to everyone, believers and non-believers. 15 And he died for all, that those who live should no longer live for themselves but for him who died for them and was raised ...


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Yes, Jesus is Jehovah/Yahweh. Rom. 10:9-13: Note the repeated "for," which links these verses closely together. The "Lord" of 10:13 must be the "Lord" of 10:9, 12. Phil. 2:9-11. In context, the "name that is above every name" is "Lord" (vs. 11), i.e., Jehovah. Heb. 1:10: Here God the Father addresses the Son ...


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Regardless of the potential for making an invalid argument in the reasoning, if A=B and A=C, then B=C, the use of ὁ λόγος, the Word, appears purposeful to lead the reader to understand the author has reached the conclusion, the Word was both God and Jesus. Complex Premises In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He ...


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If John believed that Jesus is the Creator God like what others infer from reading John 1:1-3 then that belief is not consistent with what John says in John 20:33 which says, but these are written, that ye may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye may have life in his name. John says Jesus in the Christ, the Son of God. Let ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? Traditional theology presents this proposal as fact. If we read the bible carefully, we find it does not work. Fortunately, the logic and clarity of the scriptures need no additional imagination and we can show this premise to be false from the bible without making anything ...


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The text of 2 Peter 1:3 is divided (see UBS5/NA28 for details) between the readings UBS5/NA28: ἰδίᾳ δόξῃ καὶ ἀρετῇ = to/by His own glory and excellence W&H, Byzantine, Orthodox, TR: διὰ δόξης καὶ ἀρετῆς = via/by His own glory and excellence The textual evidence is not conclusive as UBS5 regards their chosen reading as {B} = confident but not certain. ...


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Yes, transitive logic does work here because because John was logical and consistent in his description of who Jesus was. You just have to make sure you understand the Greek vocabulary and grammar. O θεός is not the same as θεός. All the scholars I have read agree on this including Henry Alford in "Commentary on John 1". Greek Testament Critical ...


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I do not think Japheth was "confined" to the tents of Shem. It simply means they dwelt together cause Ham had the hot, Shem had North Africa. So Japheth hung around Shem, instead of freezing over the Caucuses, cause Ham's people were trifling and spiteful. Too cold to live in tents in Europe back then.


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The prologue identifies the Son as God in v. 18, just as it identifies the Word as God in v. 1. The prologue was not talking about two separate Gods here, one who is the Word and one who is the Son. The Word in verse 1 is the selfsame Word who was incarnated in verse 14 and was subsequently re-affirmed as God in verse 18. The pre-incarnate Word was God (John ...


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In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, KJV) ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος (Greek) This text is perplexing to many minds. Understanding the nature of God is important to a correct comprehension of this. God is the Word. What is "the Word"? In Greek, the word ...


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He has called us "by" or "to" his own glory in 2 Peter 1:3? The difference is due to manuscript variations. Cambridge: Some MSS. give the simple dative of the instrument (ἰδίᾳ δόξῃ), and others the preposition with the genitive (διὰ δόξης). At https://biblehub.com/2_peter/1-3.htm, 18 versions use "by" and only 3 use "to&...


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The question is really asking if Jesus is the word / logos / God? I will not repeat what has already been said in some detailed answers already. It would not be reasonable to interpret Jesus as the word/logos. John did not write Jesus otherwise it would read; "and Jesus was with God and Jesus was God." – this defies logic. The Greek term Logos' is ...


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Genesis 15: 3 And Abram said, “You have given me no children; so a servant in my household will be my heir.” The Hebrew word for "heir" is H3423 (Yoresh). LXX uses G2818 (klēronómos) which is the same Greek word used in Hebrews 1: 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also ...


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If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God? That's what John wanted you to conclude. That's John's logic. However, this logic is not supported by any mathematically formal system. The question assumes that you can do the following: the Word was God ⇔ W=G There is no general formal system that allows you to replace the ...


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"I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the Lord do all these things". KJB "You shall surely die". Genesis 2:17. Man can see darkness and evil as against man's interest because for man they result in death. "God raised him up". Acts 2:24. Evil is never good for its own sake but God can use evil. ...


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Colossians 1: 15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. 16 For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. 17He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. ...


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The proposition κατὰ changes its meaning depending on what follows. In Luke 22:22 we have κατὰ τὸ ὡρισμένον. That is, both τὸ and ὡρισμένον are accusative. Thus, according to BDAG, the meaning of κατὰ is: 5. marker of norm of similarity or homogeneity, according to, in accordance with, in conformity with, eg, Luke 2:22, 39, John 18:31, 19:7, Heb 7:5, in ...


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With regard to 'in', Professor J.H. Moulton gives a list of the cases governing the prepositions, and says: "If en represents unity, the order of the frequency of the other Prepositions work out thus; eis, .64; ek, .34; epi, .32; pros, .25; dia, .24; apo, .24; kata, .17;" [and so on] (Grammar of N.T. Greek, p98) Now I quote from a different ...


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