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Okay, my answer is short and simple, I do not want to be redundant here but I wish to contribute something valuable to this good question and good conversation. The thing is Adam and Eve begat our ancestors. In a similar way, dogs begat more dogs, and cats cats, and so forth. The Father, therefore, begat the son. Here's the twist if humans produce humans, ...


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The "My God" refers to Jesus' relation to God in His humanity. It was in His manhood as well as His deity that He restored the loss which came through Adam's sin. "Your God" at John 5:17 implies they had need of a mediator that God might become their Father. This is explained at Philippians 2:5-11. Vs5, "Have this attitude in ...


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This is a question on which it is difficult to be objective; I will attempt to offer an objective take (my own two cents in the conclusion only). I’ll probably fall somewhat short of any single person’s ideal answer. We all have preconceptions on this topic and they are pretty core to our beliefs. Let’s interpret this passage through the lens of the 4 most ...


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There are some very good and enlightening answers here, to which I am grateful for the insight. Let's not completely over-complicate our thinking on this, however. Jesus was not exclusively teaching scientists and philosophers. Conversely, most of his audience was of average intelligence with little to no formal education. Why then would meaning be so deeply ...


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In the bible, the word God (elohim in Hebrew or theos in Greek) is ascribed to more than one person. Some examples: The Father - John 17:3, John 20:17 Jesus - John 20:28 Moses - Exodus 4.16, Exodus 7.1 (ʾĕlōhîm, see this answer) Judges - Exodus 21.5, Exodus 22.8 (Judges translated from elohim) Davidic King - Psalm 45:7 Satan - 2 Corinthians 4:4 In John, ...


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As a result of the Resurrection, the message of salvation based solely on faith in Jesus gave birth to the Church. The exclusivity of salvation by belief in Jesus, without any knowledge or acceptance of God as found in the Old Testament logically implies the divinity of Jesus. It also raises questions about the nature of that divinity relative to the Old ...


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Jesus is fully man, and this means that He fully has created nature of man. Now, the one who creates this nature is the Creator, God. Thus, Jesus as being a man in the sense of possessing the entirety of human nature, has God as the Creator of this nature. However, how does God the Father create? Necessarily God the Father creates through His Logos, the ...


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First let us have a direct literal translation of Phlp 2:5-8: [5] τουτο γαρ φρονεισθω εν υμιν ο και εν χριστω ιησου [6] ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω [7] αλλ εαυτον εκενωσεν μορφην δουλου λαβων εν ομοιωματι ανθρωπων γενομενος [8] και σχηματι ευρεθεις ως ανθρωπος εταπεινωσεν εαυτον γενομενος υπηκοος μεχρι θανατου θανατου δε ...


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Phl 2:3-9 KJV - 3 [Let] nothing [be done] through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves. 4 Look not every man on his own things, but every man also on the things of others. 5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with ...


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Jesus had equality with God which he did not exploit (used for his own benefit) but which he did empty by serving others. He"came to serve not to be served"(Mark 10:45). That is, He used his equality with God for the benefit of others. Philippians 2:5-8 (NRSV): 5 Let the same mind be in you that was in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the ...


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My rendering of this is a non-trinitarian one, and relies on a keying to John 1:1, which I understand as (following Moffatt) "The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine." https://www.bibliatodo.com/en/the-bible/james-moffatt-new-testament/john-1 So I believe this first part "he was in the form of God&...


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English Standard Version who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, Thayer's Greek Lexicon STRONGS NT 725: ἁρπαγμός the act of seizing, robbery (so Plutarch, de book educ. c. 15 (others 14, 37), vol. 2:12 a. the only instance of its use noted in secular authors). a thing seized or to be seized, booty: ...


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Since I have written a couple of comments and objections on one of the posts of this thread, I decided also to put them together in as a separate post. In short, my answer is that divine, infinite, spiritual, simple, uncreated, impassible Nature cannot have emotions of us, the passible, created beings. When we speak about emotions in God, like "wrath of ...


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And ye became followers of us, and of the Lord, having received the word in much affliction, with joy of the Holy Ghost: [1 Thessalonians 1:6 KJV] The joy with which the followers received the word was joy 'of the Holy Spirit'. Therefore the Holy Spirit himself knows joy. Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should ...


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Yes, three distinct persons are in view at John 14:26. The same point is also stated at John 14:16, "And I/Jesus Christ will ask the Father, and He/the Father will give you "another" Helper/Paraclete/Comforter, that He/the Holy Spirit may be with you forever." In reading the context of John 14 it is without a doubt that three persons are ...


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The Evidence There is that which is 'sent'. That which is 'sent' has a function - advocate/paraclete That which is 'sent' is 'sent' by the Father That which is 'sent' is described as 'holy' That which is 'sent' is 'sent' in a name. By that name is the sending. That which is 'sent' is 'Spirit'. Jesus said that 'God' is 'Spirit'. John 4:24 The ...


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The verse mentions 3 aspects of God's communicating and presence - Himself, His son and His Holy Spirit. We see from the following verses that the Holy Spirit is the spirit of the Father and not a separate entity. Luke 12:12 for it will not be you speaking, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you. Matthew 10:20 for the Holy Spirit will teach you ...


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There are two major parts to this question which I will deal with sequentially. A: Equality with God The idea of Jesus' equality with God is expressed in various ways in the immediate context and in other places such as: Phil 2:6 - Jesus was "in the form of God" John 1:1-3 - Jesus was both "with God" and "was God" John 5:17, 18,...


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Yes! Paul tells us that the Holy Spirit is a person! The Holy Spirit "talks" and makes decisions like a person. So yes! This is part of the evidence that God is three persons in One. All Three get the same worship and glory.


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Consider the three parts of this verse: May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love (John 3:16) of God, and the fellowship of the holy spirit The first two obviously relate directly to the Son and the Father: Religious "grace" is usually defined as an unmerited divine gift (Merriam-Webster), in this case the gift of salvation being made ...


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There is great scope for the bible to be manipulated / interpreted to one's perspective, even interpolation due to ambiguity. This question can be best answered on the basis that Paul followed Jesus teachings. If that is the case, then Paul was not a Trinitarian. A few of many examples; nothing will be changed from the OT Matthew 5:17-19 "17 Think ...


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https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Council_of_Nicaea#Trinity The Council of Nicaea dealt primarily with the issue of the deity of Christ. Over a century earlier the term "Trinity" (Τριάς in Greek; trinitas in Latin) was used in the writings of Origen (185–254) and Tertullian (160–220), and a general notion of a "divine three", in some ...


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The opening 18 verses of the John’s Gospel have been the subject of intense study and debate primarily because of their theological content. Let us examine the first few verses. Note the staircase parallelism of verse 1-5: In the beginning was the Word . And the Word was with [the] God . . And god was the Word [This is the literal word order but for ...


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That Paul is Trinitarian is clear from the fact that He regards Jesus as his Lord to whom he prays (cf. Acts 22:18, or 2 Cor. 12:8), for to pray means to pray to God, and regards Him as equal to the God Father (Phil. 2:6); and as to the Holy Spirit that we are His living temples (1 Cor. 3:16), and temples mean that temples of God, and that the Holy Spirit is ...


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Was the Apostle Paul a trinitarian? 2 Corinthians 13:14 14 May the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the fellowship of the Holy Spirit be with you all. No, it does not, no more than if we say Jack and Jill went for a walk with Lasie, it does not mean that they are three in one. This type of citation only proves that there are three ...


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I would say, that the question is not put entirely correctly, for it contains an implicit information, with which I (and anybody) may not agree from the outset; namely, the question implies that "Son" is, or can be, Logos' name only after the Incarnation (when the Logos was called also Jesus), but not prior to the Incarnation, so as to affirm that ...


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The Final Trinitarian Passage The passage in question is known as the Apostolic Benediction which many commentators (see note 2) state is one of the most explicit New Testament statements of the Trinity. Yet, simply describing three entities does not necessarily indicate deity or equality. Perhaps Paul understands Jesus is only "a" god as some (mis)...


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In the "scholarly" theological literature (which need not delay us here) there is much debate about whether Paul as "unitarian", "binitarian", or, "trinitarian". There is a huge amount of evidence for all three positions and so this cannot decided on the basis of a single text. This age-old problem will not be ...


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No. If one wants to base a primary doctrine on verses like this - simply the mention of three different aspects or presences of God, that is up to them. But it does not speak of ANY of the trinitarian parameters of co-equality etc etc. No one is denying the son of God or the spirit of God or God Himself. The nature of each is defined in scripture and it does ...


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