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Why does the KJV translate Acts 5:24 the way it does?

There is a difference in Greek text in Acts 5:24 as follows: NA28/UBS5 etc: ὡς δὲ ἤκουσαν τοὺς λόγους τούτους ὅ τε στρατηγὸς τοῦ ἱεροῦ καὶ οἱ ἀρχιερεῖς, διηπόρουν περὶ αὐτῶν τί ἂν γένοιτο τοῦτο = Now ...
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0 votes

Is Paul's anachronistic reference to "Christ" in 1 Cor. 10:9 a faux pas or to make a point?

1Cor 10:9 Neither let us test the Mashiach, as some of them tested, and perished by the serpents. [Ex 17:2, 7]” This above verse is simply exhorting the audience not to test Mashiach YaHshua, just ...
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2 votes

Elaborate on what Proverbs 14:9a says about "fools" and "sin" in order to get a deeper understanding. (layers of meaning)

The matter is the translation of the first three words of Prov 14:9: אֱ֭וִלִים יָלִ֣יץ אָשָׁ֑ם Does this mean: "Fools mock sin/guilt", or, "Sin/guilt mocks fools"? Either is ...
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0 votes

In Matthew 6:10 should it be translated "on the earth" or "in the earth?

In earth. Our faith should dictate His Will is going to be done ON Earth no matter what so we don't need to ask Him that. Instead, man is created from earth and we should pray His Will, which is to ...
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-2 votes

How to explain the differences in Matthew 19:16-17 translations?

The KJV text represent the bad textual tradition of Textus Receptus whose mss dated from the 12th Century or later, and only one came from outside the mainstream Byzantine tradition. Consequently, ...
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1 vote

What is the most accurate English translation of John 16:25 with respect to “figurative language”?

John 16:25 paroimia Etymology οἶμος (oimos) a way, road, path, course of a song. Paroimia should be allegory The representation of abstract ideas or principles by characters, figures, or events in ...
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1 vote
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What is the most accurate English translation of John 16:25 with respect to “figurative language”?

According to BDAG, the operative word, παροιμία (paroimia) has the following meaning: a pithy saying, proverb, maxim, eg, 2 Peter 2:22 a brief communication containing truths designed for initiates, ...
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3 votes
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Why do some translations of Ephesians 4:9 have the word "first" and others do not?

There is a difference in text of Eph 4:9 between the ancient witnesses and the later Byzantine text which (in this case) the Tr follows: Ancient witnesses τὸ δὲ Ἀνέβη τί ἐστιν εἰ μὴ ὅτι καὶ κατέβη ...
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