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The ESV is more faithful to the Semitic world in which Jesus lived, and is the way someone in that time & place would have actually said it. The NIV is more faithful to the way this would be understood in English--the ESV conveys the word, the NIV conveys the meaning. The thinking organ A useful passage to reference is found in Deuteronomy 6 4 Hear, O ...


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The anarthrous ποιοῦντες (v. 10) is functioning as a circumstantial participle which can be translated into English in a variety of ways,1 including means2 (“by doing”) and condition3 (“if you do”). The majority of English translations apparently interpret it as a conditional. Footnotes         1 Smyth, pp. 456–459, §§ 2054–2069         2 id., p. 458, § ...


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I suspect that the best literal translation of צור would be βράχος or στουρνάρι. The association of βράχος in Greek is places of danger, or alliterations to the myths of the Appolonic oracle of Parnassus, the Sceironian Rocks, or the myth of Hemithea. στουρνάρι would probably leave the Greek reader wondering about the meaning. There doesn't seem to be a good ...


6

This is an old chestnut! How to translate so that it makes sense in the receiving language? Here is a more glaring example in Rev 2:23 and I will strike her children dead. And all the churches will know that I am he who searches mind and heart, and I will give to each of you according to your works. The word translated "mind" is actually νεφρός ...


5

"Word" (Logos) being capitalized by some versions is consistent with some versions capitalizing all of Jesus numerous titles. Here is a sample: Word, Word of God, Word of Life, John 1:1, 14, 1 John 1:1, Rev 19:13 First and Last, Rev 1:17, 22:13. Compare Isa 41:4, 44:6, 48:12 Emanuel, Matt 1:22 Savior, 2 Tim 1:10, Totus 1:4, 2:13, 3:6. Compare ...


5

O λογος (The Word) , the subject in John 1:1, is a title of person, specifically of someone who is God (θεος). ὁ λόγος was one of the many titles of Jesus in the gospel of John. Jesus had the titles The Word, The Lamb, The Bread, The Light, The Door in the Johannine gospel (1:1, 1:14, 6:35, 8:12, 10:9). Neither word nor light nor door nor lamb nor bread is a ...


5

The operative word in James 2:2 is indeed, συναγωγή (synagoge). However, this does not not necessarily imply that James is referring to Jewish synagogues. The word simply means "place of assembly", or "meeting", "gathering place" For example the following versions translate this word as "meeting" or "assembly&...


5

The punctuation in the NKJV of bracketing the phrase in Rom 7:18, "that is, in my flesh" suggests it is simply a parenthetical remark. Other versions simply use two commas rather than parentheses. The use of the parentheses is not intended to suggest that the phrase is spurious. The text of Rom 7:18 is undisputed. The convention in the NLJV for ...


4

It looks like “ΗΝ ΔΕ ΕΓΓΥΣ ΤΟ ΠΑΣΧΑ Η ΕΟΡΤΗ ΤΩΝ ΙΟΥΔΑΙΩΝ” (based on help I received elsewhere), which I would roughly translate as, “and the Passover, the feast of the Jews, was near”. This appears to be John 6:4 (also based on surrounding context).


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First, by its own admission, the NWT is a translation of the Wescott and Hort Greek text. However, in Acts 5:31, there is no difference between W&H vs any other such as UBS5, NA28, Byzantine text and TR etc. UBS5 shows no variations in the text at Acts 5:31. NA28 does list some minor variants but none that changes the sense and all MSS have the same ...


4

Without disputing any of other answers, I wanted to provide more interpretations and arguments: Emendation switching "Amalek" with "valley" Several manuscripts of the LXX have “in the valley” rather than “into Amalek.” Brannan, R., & Loken, I. (2014). The Lexham Textual Notes on the Bible (Jdg 5:14). Bellingham, WA: Lexham Press. ...


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Assumption A likely reason for removing the metaphorical use of "rock" would be the emphasis on monolatry and avoidance of the use of idols which defined the period during which the LXX was produced. The Babylonian exile caused the land to be purged of idols, and the LXX translators "purged" metaphorical uses which might be construed as ...


4

This question can be decided on two bases; Grammatical/Semantic and Narrative flow. Grammar/Semantics The operative word he in Gen 3:9 is the final word in the verse, אַיֶּֽכָּה - the interrogative adverb being אַי = "Where" which occurs 36 times in the OT (eg, Gen 3:9, 4:9, 16:8, Deut 32:37, Judges 13:6, 1 Sam 9:18, etc) and is almost always ...


4

Let us deal with these two verse in Col 1 separately. V27 (BLB) - to whom God has willed to make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory, The bolded phrase is ὅς ἐστιν Χριστὸς ἐν ὑμῖν, ἡ ἐλπὶς τῆς δόξης, which very literally translated, is exactly as translated above. The question ...


4

Romans 1:1 New International Version Paul, a servant [G1401] of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle and set apart for the gospel of God— New Living Translation This letter is from Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus, chosen by God to be an apostle and sent out to preach his Good News. NASB translated G1401 most of the time as slave: bond-servant (11), bond-...


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Is there any basis for describing Jesus as God's "Chief Agent" (re:archegos) in this Bible verse (Acts 5:31) ? No, none at all : Arche in Greek is far, far more than 'chief'. Arche is that which has precedence and which is foundational (archetypal). Not only so, but arche is that which is in place at the beginning with a view to being the ...


3

Koine Greek does not have an indefinite article, and the definite article is not used the way the english definite article is used. That means it's up to the interpreter to add in indefinite articles as needed based on the context. Moreover the genitive can be translated with an apostrophe or the more ambiguous "of" construction. Finally anthropous ...


3

Tzitz ( צִ֔יץ ) refers to a blossomed bud - of any plant | frontlet on holy garments. As a botanical bud - In Numbers 17:23 - we find Tzitz ( צִ֔יץ ) associated with שְׁקֵדִֽים almonds. "And on the following day Moses came to the Tent of Testimony, and behold, Aaron's staff for the house of Levi had blossomed! It gave forth blossoms, sprouted buds, and ...


3

This is not a "phrase used by translators", it is the literal text, which says "holekh al arba" or "walk on four". I don't think translators should change that to read "six" to aid our understanding, but should give a faithful literal translation, which they did. Then, it is the job of interpreters to dig into semitic ...


3

This is rather simple to answer. The NIV and NASB and similar strictly follow the Masoretic Hebrew text. A few others such as NLT & BSB, in this case, include an extra part of the text according to the Greek translation known as the Septuagint or LXX. The LXX adds Rejoice, O heavens, with Him, and let all God’s angels worship Him. Because this extra ...


3

There are two distinct issues here. The confusion between Gilead, Galaad, or even Gilad is just due to different transliterations for the same Hebrew word גִּלְעָד H1568. This was answered competently by Dottard. The second issue is more serious. גִּלְעָד Gilead located on the east side of Jordan: Joshua 17:5 Manasseh's share consisted of ten tracts of land ...


3

There is no translation warrant for rendering Col 1:27-28 the way that the New World Translation does. That is because the Greek text does not have any words in those verses that could be translated as “union with”. The text simply says “in you, and “in Christ”. In order to produce the NWT rendition, they have had to add words in English that are just not ...


3

Was God's command to the unnamed prophet in 1 Kings 13 symbolic to us today? Answer: There is certainly a warning for us, whether symbolic or not. The examples you have given of David's sinful past, as well as that of the judges, and many other righteous men who proved to be quite sinful do not necessarily apply because many of them suffered greatly ...


3

The italicized text shows supplied wording of the KJV translators. The issue isn't the texts available to the translators, but how to translate the Hebrew text. The issue is how to translate זֶ֥ה. As an adverb thus, in this manner results in a translation like KJV and NASB. As an adjective translates yon like the JPS Tanakh. As a subtantive translates *...


3

A Translation Bias With time and culture, the Christians have changed the identity of the Jewish religion to non-Jewish, due to antisemitic culture within the mainstream "Churches". The Church building is nothing but a replacement for the Synagogue. Synagogue more pertains to the place of ekklesia or assembly, thus a proper translation should use ...


3

"Delay" is a mistranslation. Consider other verses in the New Testament where this same Greek word (chronos) is used. There are only six other verses that use the exact same form of this word (nominative masculine singular noun). Here they are: And he asked his father, How long is it ago (chronos) since this came unto him? And he said, Of a ...


3

The reason why the publishers of the Divine Name King James Bible restored the Divine Name seems to me a good answer to this question. Here is their posting that was posted on September 2, 2015, on the Cleveland Daily Banner. A new King James Bible has broken a centuries-old tradition and is following in the footsteps of several Bible translations that ...


3

This textual apparatus of the Septuagint (LXX) shows no significant variations in Gen. 1:1. ΓΕΝΕΣΙΣ ΚΟΣΜΟΥ Inscr γενεσις E CHAPTER 1 1:4 ειδεν A1 (rescr Ad) Swete, H. B. (1909). The Old Testament in Greek: According to the Septuagint (Apparatus) (Vol. 1, p. 1). Cambridge: Cambridge University Press. The variation in Gen. 1:26 has to do with the birds ...


3

I can't answer your question about the translator's choice. As to your second question - "clean hands" is an expression of innocence, as opposed to, say, bloody hands. David is saying that G-d alone knows of his true innocence and in that merit he will be saved.


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The KJV is not translating mot as "ready", it is translating the expression וּמָטִ֥ים לַ֝הֶ֗רֶג as "ready to be slaughtered", because umatim means "tottering"[1], as in something loosend and about to fall down and thus the sense of the two words umatim lahereg is someone on the verge of being killed. Thus the KJV chose more of a ...


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