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9 votes

Romans 3:22 – ‘of’ or ‘in’? Old translations differ from modern ones. Why?

Scholars word the question as: "Is διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ (Literally, "through faith/faithfulness of Jesus Christ") an objective or subjective genitive? So, objective versus ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
7 votes

Why do translators translate Luke 2:25 and 11:13 as "the Holy Spirit" instead of "a holy spirit"?

It is true that the NT speaks of the "spirit of man" (eg, 1 Cor 2:11) as distinct from the "Spirit of God" (eg, 1 Cor 2:11, Rom 8:9, etc). However, when the word "spirit" ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes

NASB translation of John 4:1

I can't speak for the NASB translators, but my guess is that they chose a different textual tradition. Both Ἰησοῦς and κύριος are represented in copies of the original. Ἰησοῦς is more difficult to ...
Mike Sangrey's user avatar
7 votes

Why do some Bible translations differ on how Proverbs 16:31 is translated?

You will notice here that the word "if" is not explicitly present in the Hebrew. However, the meaning of the verse implies a condition. The verse describes the condition under which the ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

Is Matthew 24:40 mistranslated in most English translations?

Let us examine the meanings of the pertinent words as nominated by the OP, according to BDAG. παραλαμβάνω (paralambanó) According to BDAG, this word has two basic meanings: to take into close ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

Should "διά" (dia) be translated as "through" or "because of" in the five NT verses pertaining to God creating the world for Jesus?

The situation is not so simplistic as the OP suggests. There are grammatical clues about the semantics of this word διά (dia). There are two cases to consider: A: With the Genitive case B: with the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

Romans 3:22 – ‘of’ or ‘in’? Old translations differ from modern ones. Why?

Justification is a much misunderstood doctrine and, as a result, some have struggled to translate the very precise wording of, particularly, the apostle Paul who wrote some things, as Peter puts it, '...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes
Accepted

How do we know there should be commas in between the titles in Isaiah 9:6?

To be a single title, one would expect eight nouns to make a noun-train. But what we actually have in Isa 9:6 is: noun, verb, noun, adjective, compound noun, noun-noun; the last two nouns are jointed ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k
6 votes

Should "διά" (dia) be translated as "through" or "because of" in the five NT verses pertaining to God creating the world for Jesus?

παντα δι αυτου εγενετο John 1:3 (TR, undisputed). Autou is the genitive. Therefore the accusative prepositional meanings do not apply. Daniel B Wallace in his grammar 'Beyond the Basics' gives the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes

Isaiah 33:15(d) "He who stops his ears from hearing about bloodshed" modern 21st century English translation issue

It took me about 10 times reading through the question. And I think I might get the premise: The issue isn't as much about the 'bloodshed' as it is about the 'hearing' of it. Specifically, it seems ...
Epimanes's user avatar
  • 2,313
5 votes

Why is Iakobos translated as (J)ames

This is part of the progression from Hebrew to Greek to Latin and finally English. The name in Hebrew is pronounced Yaakov (Jacob). This became Iakóbos in Greek, then Iacomus in Latin and finally ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
5 votes

Prunes or Cleanses in John 15:1-4 ESV?

I would say the Kathairó would be the best translation in this case, because it is a bit more clear, but they both mean the same thing. Pruning is symbolism for making something pure. When you prune ...
Thomas Smith's user avatar
5 votes

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

I don't think you can separate options b, c, and d from each other given that the Biblical nature of love is that we love others as God has loved us (1 John 3:16, 1 John 4:11). So I think those three ...
EngineeringMind's user avatar
5 votes

Why is Matthew 6:1 rendered "righteousness" in NIV and ESV when Strongs renders it mercy, compassion or alms?

Short Answer: I noticed that if you look at the different Greek manuscripts, you will see that they use different Greek words. I quote: The Textus Receptus constituted the translation-base for the ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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5 votes

Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1?

The short answer is "NO". The reasons for this are: Luke 20:38 does not mention the Word/Logos (the word used in John 1:1) The two passages in John 1:1 and Luke 20:38 are discussing quite ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Meaning of Psalm 139:5

The question seeks to know specifically why 'hand' is used in Psalm 139:5, and not 'foot'. First, it is worth noting that the Hebrew word 'yad' for 'hand' is used in Psalm 139:10. Context is the ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

Is Proverbs 11:7b best translated as 'unjust men,' 'strong men,' or 'wealth'?

This is almost weird! I am at a loss to understand why some versions render אוֹנִ֣ים (lexical form אָוֶן) as "strength", or "wealth", etc. The listed BDB meaning for אָוֶן is &...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Confusing NLT translation of Revelation 12:11

The NLT translation is perfectly grammatical. As already mentioned, you are trying to introduce a double negative, which would confuse the sentence. I think I can help by spelling out how the ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
4 votes

In 1 Corinthians 13:8, it says 'will pass away' in reference to spiritual gifts. Does this mean that they will pass away or that they already have?

It has to be comprehended from the whole context, beginning from 1 Corinthians 12:1. Apparently the members in the church of Corinthians had disputed about Spiritual Gifts and argument about which ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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4 votes

What does Hebrews 5:14 mean?

Hebrews 5:14 But solid food is for the mature, who by constant use have trained themselves to distinguish good from evil. - NIV The author addresses his hearers as spiritual children who cannot tell ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
4 votes

What does Hebrews 5:14 mean?

The first clause is the comparison, and the second clause is the reason for the comparison. For whereas for the time you ought to be teachers, you have need to be taught again what are the first ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 9,693
4 votes

What evidence exists that "רְאֵם" ("re'em") is *not* a rhinoceros?

One reason for the 'aurochs/wild ox' translation is a hypothesized etymological connection of the word to words in other languages that are supposed to refer to some bovid (rather than a rhinoceros). (...
user18288's user avatar
  • 143
4 votes

Genesis 4:5-8. What could Cain have done differently?

Cain was the first-born child of Adam and Eve. Just as his parents failed to heed the warning God gave to them and ended up cast out - banished - from thee garden provided for them, so Cain failed to ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Is Hosea 13:14, quoted by Apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:55, oddly mistranslated?

A lot depends on variants, translations, and later Masoretic "recensions". Let's see which is closest. Note that the Masoretes were traditionalist rabbis named after the Hebrew word masorah, ...
Dieter's user avatar
  • 2,165
4 votes
Accepted

NASB translation of John 4:1

Both the ESV and the NASB do a good job of reasonably literally translating their respective Greek texts. The problem in John 4:1 is that the Greek text is disputed and highly uncertain, even among ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k
4 votes

Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1?

Question: Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1? Short Answer: In one sense it can as they both lack the indefinite ...
Jason_'s user avatar
  • 5,899
4 votes

why does the ESV abandon it's word-for-word emphasis at the end of Revelation 10:6?

When the ESV says it is 'essentially literal'... emphasis is on "word-for-word" correspondence" - that allows it an exclusion clause for occasionally deviating from a literal ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Is the "di" in John 7:43 accusative or genitive?

διά is a preposition and so does not have any grammatical case. The meaning of the word is defined by the noun or pronoun which follows it. When the word is accusative, dia means "because of&...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k
4 votes
Accepted

What is the literal translation of Genesis 15:6 (b)?

Four hundred and thirty years before the Law was given, God saw the faith of Abram, for Abram demonstrated faith in God's promise to him. In his heart, Abram believed God, but not as an intellectual ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 25.2k
3 votes
Accepted

Is Proverbs 13:7a properly translated as 'pretends' or 'makes'?

There are two verbs in Prov 13:7, one about becoming rich and the other about becoming poor. Both have identical grammatical forms as follows: מִ֭תְעַשֵּׁר = Hithpael masculine singular form of ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 108k

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