One of the critical scholars who believe the attribution to Paul is clearly fictional is Burton L. Mack, who says (Who Wrote the New Testament, p206) the language, style and thought of Titus is thoroughly un-Pauline. He says the ‘personal’ references to particular occasions in the lives of Timothy, Titus, and Paul do not fit with reconstructions of that ...
We find this precedent in the OT:
Isa 43:3, 11 - For I am the LORD your God, the Holy One of Israel, your Savior; ... I, yes I, am the LORD and there is no Savior but Me.
Isa 45:17, 21 - But Israel will be saved by the LORD with an everlasting salvation; ... Who foretold this long ago? Who announced it from ancient times? Was it not I, the LORD? There is no ...
The pre-Pauline references to the brother magicians are rare. Other answers draw attention to the mention of the names by Pliny in his Natural History (XXX.1.11). This was published at the end of the 70s, however, and so is only evidence that the names were current by Paul's time.
There was a theory that the second century BCE Jewish historian Artapanus, ...
One early lesson in Classical Greek class is that neuter plural nouns in Greek function as a "collective" in the singular, and therefore can take verbs and their forms in the singular.
The Greek word in question in 1 Tim 3:4 is τέκνa, which is neuter plural.
Smyth, Herbert Weir (1918). Greek Grammar. Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 264.
Paul's letter to Titus is fairly clear end-to-end that its main concern is the behaviour and lifestyle of believers. The surrounding passage makes it clear that 'sound doctrine' or 'healthy teaching' is primarily a matter of living out good character and being consistent in their lifestyles.
Paul, a servant of God and an apostle of ...
From the link posted by Paul Vargas, found here:
Our restatement of Sharp’s rule is believed to be true to the nature
of the language, and able to address all classes of exceptions that
Winstanley raised. The “Sharper” rule is as follows:
In native Greek constructions (i.e., not translation Greek), when a
single article modifies two ...
'proper hermeneutics' requires
an honest reading of the text with a conscious effort to avoid reading into the text that which is not there - eisegesis,
to be alert to additions to the text which have altered the original intent.
the resolute pursuit of biblical context which often, quite readily, helps to understand a difficult passage.
According to Pliny's natural history, in discussing the origin of magic in the world he mentions Jannes in relation to Moses.
There is another sect, also, of adepts in the magic art, who derive their origin from Moses, Jannes, and Lotapea,Jews by birth, but many thousand years posterior to Zoroaster: and as much more recent, again, is the branch of magic ...
No, there is no contradiction here. Some Jews became part of the early Church and supported Paul's mission; many Jews didn't, and opposed Paul's mission. This is abundantly clear even from the most superficial reading of the New Testament.
The Greek word is ἀνέγκλητος (anegklētos). The root word κλητός (klētos) means called or summoned and in classical Greek has a legal connotation (e.g. being "summoned to court"). The related verb ἐγκαλέω (egkaleō) means to bring charges or press charges, e.g.:
If, then, Demetrius and his fellow craftsmen have a grievance against ...
If as you suggest a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 justifies that "our great God" is the Father and not Jesus can you please "reconcile" the immediate context which states it is Jesus who is appearing at His second coming, not God the Father?
Moreover at Titus 2:14 states it was God the Son Jesus "who gave Himself us, that HE might redeem us from every ...
Although it is commonplace to apply the title of Savior to Jesus, Paul uses it to refer to God the Father as well.
A relevant parallel
Compare to 1 Timothy 1:1:
Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our
Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope;
I do not doubt there are those who would interpret this passage differently, but ...
2 Tim 4:2 and Titus 1:3 both have τὸν λόγον (ton logon) in Greek. The decision whether to caplitalize or not is wholly down to the instinct of the editors of that particular translation.
It is worth noting, too, that this is a "luxury" of English: not every language system as the same lower-, upper-case distinctions that modern English does.
What the ...
Most Protestant scholars believe in justification by faith alone (obviously). And there is also a tendency to extend faith alone further, i.e. into sanctification too. Beginning with this doctrinal bias, they start with the presupposition that Romans and Galatians are the unquestionably authentic epistles because Romans and Galatians are the most useful to ...
In Rom 1:8-10, Paul's blessing refers to the strong faith of the Romans; in 1 Cor 1:4-6 likewise, as Paul thanks God for their faith; 2 Cor 1:2-7 differs only in that the blessing is in the form of words of comfort; 1 Thess 2-4 is again gives thanks for their faith. Compare this to Galatians, where Paul wishes the Galatians well (Gal 1:2) but omits the ...
The confusion stems from how the NIV translates the passage. Here the King James makes the original clearer:
But speak (λάλει) thou the things which become sound doctrine: That the aged men be sober, grave, temperate, sound in faith, in charity, in patience. (Titus 2:1-2 KJV)
The meaning of λάλει is to speak or proclaim Strongs 2980.
So the instruction ...
Exactly as others have said: these names appear in Jewish non-biblical tradition, specifically in the Targum of Pseudo-Jonathan to Exodus 7:11, as well as in later Hellenistic sources (like Josephus). Martin McNamara discusses it here, and there is a lengthy discussion of the Jewish and Greek sources here as well (page 1-71). As Frank Luke noted in a comment,...
Actually, it shows that Paul was very good at logic.
Anthony Thiselton tackles this question in his article "The Logical Role of the Liar Paradox in Titus 1:12,13: A Dissent From the Commentaries in the Light of Philosophical and Logical Analysis", Biblical Interpretation 2.2 (1994): 207–223. Thiselton's case has been elaborated, nuanced, and extended by ...
There is no pronoun 'our' in Greek. There is just 'us' represented in the genitive form 'of us' which expresses possessiveness or, as in this case, agency - the Agent of salvation.
του μεγαλου θεου και σωτηρος ημων ιησου χριστου [TR]
the great God and saviour of us Jesus Christ [literal - see Green]
The literal translation offered in the body of Green's ...
The context is important to understand the point Paul is making:
waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works. (Titus 2:13-14) [ESV]
4 But ...
The Greek for the last part of Titus 3:5 reads:
ἔσωσεν ἡμᾶς διὰ λουτροῦ παλινγενεσίας καὶ ἀνακαινώσεως Πνεύματος Ἁγίου
Very literally, I would translate this:
[He] saved us via washing of rebirth and renewing of [the]
Note that washing, rebirth, renewing, Spirit, Holy, are all genitive. Thus we understand this to mean being saved by either:
These are the guidelines given to us (I Cor. 4:6):
Now these things, brethren, I have figuratively transferred to myself
and Apollos for your sakes, that you may learn in us not to think
beyond what is written, that none of you may be puffed up on behalf of
one against the other.
What should we not think beyond? Paul said, "what is written". ...
Background: Paul knew there were some men within the church (known as Judaizers) who insisted that all Christians were bound by the Mosaic Law and must therefore be circumcised if they were to be saved. Titus, a Gentile Christian, was well placed to refute their teachings (Galatians 5:1-6). These men were rebellious deceivers, who had to be silenced because ...
One presumptive analysis is to view all the grammatical situations extant in the Greek New Testament (NA28) and Septuagint where the following morphological string occurs:
any definite article (in the genitive case)
any noun (in the genitive case)
any possessive pronoun (in the ...
There is ambiguity in the Greek just as there is in English, as evidenced by long traditions of translations both ways (as two entities and as one entity described two ways).
For me, the lack of a second article is a strong hint that the author intended to describe a single entity. The text reads:
του μεγαλου θεου και σωτηρος ημων ιησου χριστου
The phrase in question, from Titus 2:13, has been translated as both "our great God and Savior Jesus Christ" and "the great God and our Savior Jesus Christ". Since it has multiple translations, it's possible the underlying Greek has some ambiguity. While there is a disambiguating "rule", it is not necessarily absolute. Potential ambiguity is a consequence of ...
Paul's Epistle to Titus was intended for all of the Christians in Crete, addressed specifically to Titus, whom Paul had tasked with establishing the Christian community there. A modern Eastern Orthodox commentary on Titus explains:
The Christian community in Crete was diverse. Typically Cretan moral problems - lying, laziness, and avarice - as well as the ...