New answers tagged

3

Does Angel of the Lord = Preincarnate Christ? Allow me to clarify something at the outset. I think there is a huge disparity between the terms “an angel of the LORD" and "the Angel of the Lord," although I'm not certain how someone can easily differentiate between the two. It seems to me that nothing other than context and evidence will ...


1

At Judges 2:1 it clearly states the angel of the Lord stated, "I brought you up out of Egypt and led you into the land which I have "SWORN" to your fathers; and I said I will never break My covenant with you." This takes place at Exodus 20:2 says, "I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of ...


0

The occurrence of "The Angel of the LORD" in the OT is quite often the LORD Himself, but not always. The standard commentaries are undecided but most (Ellicott, Barnes, Cambridge, MacLaren, Pulpit, etc) equate this angel with one of: the "angel of the presence", Isa 63:9, Luke 1:19, which specifically refer to Gabriel. However, All ...


3

The angel presents himself to Gideon as that angel that took them out of Egypt. EXODUS 23:21 Pay attention to him and listen to what he says. Do not rebel against him; he will not forgive your rebellion, since my Name is in him. This angel had Gods name ‘in him’. He spoke, as if he were God. Many believe this angel was a pre-incarnation of Jesus. But that ...


1

At https://biblehub.com/judges/2-1.htm, 19 versions translate it as "the angel" and only 3 versions use "an angel". Interestingly, KJV has "an angel" and New KJV has "the Angel". Barnes' Notes on the Bible The angel of the Lord (not an angel). - The phrase is used nearly 60 times to designate the Angel of God's ...


0

I've heard this question many, many times before and mainly by Unitarians and not necessarily regarding Jesus the Angel of the Lord. They use Hebrews 1:2 to prove that Jesus Christ did not pre-exist His incarnation, cannot be God, cannot be the angel of the Lord because He only existed in these last days as the Son. Look at the very first word at Hebrews 1L1....


0

For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are My Son; today I have become Your Father”? [ Heb 1:5 ] Does this not imply that Jesus is also an angel, or if not, certainly angelic, even as those resurrected will be "like the angels". [ Lk 20:36 ] In any case in Heb 1:1, Jesus was not contrasted to angels, but to the prophets. Of course in Heb ...


0

"Through Him God created universe" (Hebrew 1:2), which phrase does not mean that God had an option to create either through Him (Logos) or directly, without the Logos, which supposition will be as stupid as counterintuitive, but that Logos was indispensable for the Father in the act of creation, and therefore the Logos is co-God and co-Creator with ...


0

Does Hebrew 1:2 mean that Jesus can’t be the Angel of the LORD? It states that in the old days God spoke to other people "but in these last days he has spoken by His son". So, does that mean Jesus can’t be the Angel through Whom He spoke in the Old Testament? No. It does not mean that Jesus cannot be the angel of the LORD (YHWH) whom he spoke in ...


1

A very thought provoking question! And, one that will no doubt lead to responses that will prove difficult to exegetically substantiate. There is opinion, and all be it that some conclusions may be somewhat inescapable, nevertheless they will, at best, be conclusions. Where there epiphanies of the pre-incarnate Jesus in the Old Testament? We can only go by ...


2

Hebrews argues that the Son is greater than angels. But that argument does not negate the fact that the Son (greater than angels) was manifested in angelic form in OT times. There is no contradiction. That he is manifested in human form, now, does not negate the fact that he is God.


1

The OP's question is interesting because there are TWO sides to it: Heb 1:2 possibly implies that God did NOT speak via the Son in the OT but only by the prophets The God spoke through the various prophets in the OT and so does not speak via prophets in the NT because God now speaks through the Son. A moment's reflect suggests that second cannot be true ...


Top 50 recent answers are included