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16 votes

Is Jesus called YHWH in Joel 2:32/Romans 10:13?

In the old testament (and in many ANE cultures), "name" was a synecdoche for the person, but with the connotation that this is the mechanism by which the person was known. In modern English, ...
Robert's user avatar
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11 votes
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Is Jesus called YHWH in Joel 2:32/Romans 10:13?

Several modern versions do capitalize Lord in Rom 10:13 such as NLT, NKJV, LSV, etc. This is somewhat justified as the Rom 10:13 passage is unambiguously referencing Joel 2:32 as the OP has correctly ...
Dottard's user avatar
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9 votes

What was the name given in Acts 4:12? Was it the Tetragrammaton or the name ''Jesus''?

The answer to your question is in the text of scripture in verse 10 : Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth ... etc [Acts 4:10 KJV] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes
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Who first interpretated John 8:58 ego eimi as Yahweh claim?

So there are perhaps two angles to this question: What's the first literal claim of 'I Am' = 'Yahweh' in reference to this verse? How early was this understood as a claim to divinity? I introduce ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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6 votes

(Genesis 1:31 - 2:1) Acrostic YHWH stamp at the end of day six

A few thoughts: (1) יוֹם הַשִּׁשִּׁי (yom hash-shish-shi) is a construct phrase where the adjective שִׁשִּׁי acts as a noun. The phrase literally means "the day of the sixth" or "the sixth'...
Ryan Stephen's user avatar
6 votes

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, "the LORD", why is the article "the" used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4

The reason why the publishers of the Divine Name King James Bible restored the Divine Name seems to me a good answer to this question. Here is their posting that was posted on September 2, 2015, on ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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6 votes
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Why does the KJV say JAH in Psalm 68:4?

This is rather uncomplicated. The name יָהּ (Yah) is simply a shortened form of יְהוָֹה (YHWH), the latter is called, "The Tetragrammaton" = "four letters" denoting the sacred ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Since the earliest copies of the Jewish LXX translation to Greek contains YHWH, what reasons do modern translations give for replacing it with LORD?

There are two reasons for this English practice for translating the tetragrammaton (YHWH) as "LORD": The Septuagint and the New Testament consistently translate OT passages containing the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

How many YHWH are there according to Mark 12:29 and Deuteronomy 6:4? What does the word "one" mean on both verses?

Great Question! The word in Deut 6:4 is a complex word, אֶחָֽד׃‪‬ (’e·ḥāḏ). One of the best known and quoted occurrences of this word is in Gen 2:24 That is why a man leaves his father and mother ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

What was the name given in Acts 4:12? Was it the Tetragrammaton or the name ''Jesus''?

Although as Dottard's answer shows that ultimately the savior is God the Father (whose proper name is the Tetragrammaton) acting through His Son incarnate Jesus of Nazareth, and although Peter himself ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
4 votes

Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

Actually, the word "He" does not exist in the Greek text at all. Here is my literal translation of the NA28/UBS5 Greek text of Mark 12:27 - οὐκ ἔστιν Θεὸς νεκρῶν ἀλλὰ ζώντων. πολὺ πλανᾶσθε. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

What was the name given in Acts 4:12? Was it the Tetragrammaton or the name ''Jesus''?

The answer to the question is actually given both locally (in the text) and more generally by consideration of the following: Locally in the text: (Acts 4:8-12) Then Peter, filled with the Holy ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Luke 4:18, Did Jesus utter the Tetragrammaton?

It is very unlikely that Jesus uttered the tetragrammaton when reading this text. We are not sure if He read the text in Greek or Hebrew (or even Aramaic?) but let us assume that He read it in the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes
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Translation of Matt 22:44, "The Lord said to my Lord ... "

I will post an answer here to begin the discussion and hope others will contribute. First, Matt 22:44 is not alone in quoting Ps 110:1. It is also quoted in Mark 12:36, Luke 20:42, Acts 2:34. In all ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Why isn't the Tetragrammaton used in Exodus 3:14?

The Name revealed in Ex 3:14 explains the meaning of the Tetragrammaton, either directly or indirectly depending on how the latter is vocalized. We have to take into account two properties of Hebrew ...
Johannes's user avatar
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3 votes

Does the New Testament use the divine name "Yahweh"?

YHWH is not mentioned specifically but it is referred to numerous times in the New Testament by the use of the words name or Lord. Often when "name" is mentioned it refers to YHWH. YHWH in the New ...
William's user avatar
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3 votes

Why does the KJV say JAH in Psalm 68:4?

I expect opinions on this question to vary, and perhaps there is no firm answer. From my 2+ years of Hebrew study, the following represents my own conclusions. There are only a handful of verses with ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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2 votes

Does the New Testament use the divine name "Yahweh"?

The NT does not mention the Tetragrammaton itself, but Rev 4:8 mentions its meaning as revealed in Ex 3:14-15. God said to Moses, "I AM WHO I AM"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of ...
Johannes's user avatar
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2 votes

Luke 4:18, Did Jesus utter the Tetragrammaton?

From the description of events, one concludes Jesus read from the scroll of Isaiah: 16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up. And as was his custom, he went to the synagogue on the ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
2 votes

Doesn’t Moses hypothetical response of the Israelites in (4:1) answer his proposed question in (3:13), then “I AM” is an assurance as in Exodus 3:12?

Answer Summarized The difference in Exodus between 3:13 and 4:1 is 3:13 gave a name to YHWH distinguished from the Egyptian deities with his superiority later shown by the 10 plagues. God's response ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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2 votes

(Malachi 1:12) No tetragrammaton, but capitalised LORD in KJV

In the Massorah, by Christian David Ginsburg (Ktav Publishing House, New York, 1975 [reprint], vol. IV, p. 28, § 115), we are informed about an amount of changes some ancient scribes (sopherim) ...
Saro Fedele's user avatar
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2 votes

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, "the LORD", why is the article "the" used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, "the LORD", why is the article "the" used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4 It has long been held that the "...
Olde English's user avatar
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2 votes

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, "the LORD", why is the article "the" used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, “the LORD”, why is the article “the” used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4 Notice what the Benson Commentary has to say on the topic ...
agarza's user avatar
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2 votes

Analyze , & expound upon whether Hebrew translation of Isaiah 26:3a added emphasis on "steadfast"/"mind on" being on God or Does Not

Ellicott captures the essence of Isa 26:3 when he says: (3) Thou wilt keep him in perfect peace.—The italics show that the English version is made up with several interpolated words. More literally, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

Why is YHWH Elohim never punctuated to demonstrate apposition?

Of note is the fact that only God is spoken of in the opening chapter of Genesis, and the first three verses of chapter 2. This establishes categorically that the God who created everything is the God ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

... how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? - Mark 12:26 God here is theos which is a singular, generalized term indicating ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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2 votes

Was David called YHWH?

The little "problem": in 1 Sam 20:12 is specifically addressed by Ellicot when he comments: The vocative, however, “O Lord God,” &c., of the English Version has been generally looked ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, "the LORD", why is the article "the" used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4

This question, unless edited, may be closed but I want to be helpful to what appears to be a genuine question. The article, "the" is regularly used to accommodate the stricture of English ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Is Jesus called YHWH in Joel 2:32/Romans 10:13?

Short answer: not necessarily. Longer answer: Saying that passages like this equate Jesus with YHWH is a popular and common interpretation as evidenced by the answers here. However, this isnt the ...
Aleph-Gimel's user avatar

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