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John 7:22 - Why Did Moses Give the Commandment of Circumcision?

The Greek translated "for this reason" is διὰ τοῦτο (lit. "because of this"). The phrase is formulaic and uses the neuter demonstrative pronoun τοῦτο ("this") regardless of the antecedent, which is ...
Susan's user avatar
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7 votes
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Is James 2:14 two questions or one?

Yes, it is necessarily a question rather than a statement. The relevant part of the text (NA-28): μὴ δύναται ἡ πίστις σῶσαι αὐτόν Note the negative particle μὴ followed by an indicative verb (...
Susan's user avatar
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6 votes

How should Isaiah 59:19 be translated and understood?

why the double dashes? That's a "writing smell" to me suggesting the translators are in the weeds What the translation means to say by including the dashes is And from the rising of the sun [they ...
b a's user avatar
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6 votes

What logical, biblical or exegetical reason is there for referring to the 'Word' as Jesus before Jesus was born?

The reason is very simple. The text of John 1 says: V1 - the Word was in the beginning (ie, anciently before time began, or forever past) - a clear allusion to Gen 1:1. V2 - same again - very ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes
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In Romans 11:11 who is made jealous of whom?

In this case the syntax is clear: ἀλλὰ τῷ αὐτῶν παραπτώματι ἡ σωτηρία τοῖς ἔθνεσιν εἰς τὸ παραζηλῶσαι αὐτούς. but by their (masc) trespass the salvation [came to] the gentiles (neut) in order to ...
Susan's user avatar
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4 votes

In Luke 22, How Should Prepare and Eat - be Translated from the Aorist Subjunctive?

The second of the two subjunctive verbs in Mark 14:12 is unproblematic: in classical and post-classical Greek the conjunction ἵνα is always followed by a verb in the subjunctive mode if the verb in ...
fdb's user avatar
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4 votes
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In Jeremiah 29:8 what kind of dream was Israel not to listen to?

Should "have dreamed" be translated in 2nd, or 3rd Person Plural? "... you all have dreamed" ... or, "... they have dreamed"? The word is מַחְלְמִים, which is a masculine plural participle (which ...
b a's user avatar
  • 3,774
4 votes
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In Matthew 5:3 what kind of dative is "τῷ πνεύματι"?

With reference to verse 8 : ... the pure in heart, τη καρδια (which is also a dative) Daniel B Wallace ascribes it to be a 'dative of reference', of which he says : ... the dative is the most ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

Acts 16:34 - He did what with his family?

The literal rendering of Acts 16:34 is (BLB) And having brought them into the house, he laid a table [for them] and rejoiced with all [his] household, having believed in God. It is true that the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Why is the word 'anti' used in Ephesians 5:31 instead of 'heneka' when quoting Genesis 2:24?

The purpose of the quotation is different in Paul's case to the original words of Adam (recorded by Moses in Genesis) and the quotation by Jesus (recorded by Matthew). In both Adam's original saying ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes

What is the difference between Acts 10:44 - "the Holy Spirit," and v 45 - "the Holy Spirit?"

The phrase "Holy Spirit" appears in the Greek NT about 90 times with a large variety of settings such as: πνεύμα ἁγίος ("spirit holy"), eg, Matt 1:18, Mark 1:8, Luke 1:15, 35, 41, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes
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Does the Hebrew verb in Genesis 1:1-3 for "God said" imply an instant act of creation (perhaps like the Greek aorist tense)?

The word involved in Gen 1:3, 6, 9, 11, 14, 20, 22, 24, 26, 28, 29 is simply אָמַר (amar) and means nothing more than that someone said something. In most cases in Gen 1 it is just the very ordinary ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes
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Rule for Waw with dagesh or not?

The וּ is called a shúreq and functions as a vowel (not a consonant). The וּ / û vowel can appear either at the end or in the middle of a word. When the "waw" is used as a conjunctive &...
Biblasia's user avatar
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2 votes

Hebrews 12:2 "for the joy" or "instead of the joy"?

The mirrored image - replacing what is negated I have had a look through all 22 occurrences of anti (ἀνθ’) or anth (ἀντὶ), and I would agree that the correct translation is 'instead of the joy', ...
Possibility's user avatar
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2 votes

In Psalm 22:20 is there a change to singular animals?

Actually, in Ps 22 the enemies of David are metaphorically given various titles that form a chiastic pattern: V12 - Bulls of Bashan (plural) V13 - - Lion (singular) V16a - - - Dogs (plural) V16b - - -...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

What is Job's complaint in Job 24:1?

Great question. ‎מַדּ֗וּעַ מִ֭שַּׁדַּי לֹא־נִצְפְּנ֣וּ עִתִּ֑ים [וְיֹדְעֹו כ] (וְ֝יֹדְעָ֗יו ק) לֹא־חָ֥זוּ יָמָֽיו׃ Job follows this initial query by describing many occasions of visible injustice, ...
Possibility's user avatar
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2 votes

In Job 33:23 what does "what constitutes his uprightness" mean?

The Hebrew is quite simple. A conservative translation would be: אם יש עליו מלאך מליץ אחד מני אלף להגיד לאדם ישרו But if an angel shall stand beside him to intercede, one among thousands to declare a ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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2 votes

In 1 Timothy 6:5, (gain is godliness) or (godliness is gain)?

In 1 timothy 6:5, (gain is godliness) or (godliness is gain)? In the context of Pauls' writings, a correct rendering of the verse is that by the NASB and many other Bible translations, "godliness is ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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2 votes

What logical, biblical or exegetical reason is there for referring to the 'Word' as Jesus before Jesus was born?

In John 8:58, it is written, 58 Jesus said to them, “Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I exist.” It states, “Jesus said...” And what did Jesus say? Jesus said, “Before Abraham was ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
2 votes

Hebrews 9:27 speaks of things "after" death?

First and foremost, “Strong’s greek lexicon” is a misnomer. “Strong’s” is a concordance, not a lexicon. In order to be translated as “with,” the word following the preposition μετά would need to be ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
2 votes

Why does John use a double "Verily, verily," (John 1:53, et al.) when the other Gospel writers use only one?

I suggest a combination of answers. On the one hand, the appearance of AMEN in all the gospels shows that it must must have been a well-known feature of the way Jesus spoke in public. But the repeated ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
2 votes

Why does John use a double "Verily, verily," (John 1:53, et al.) when the other Gospel writers use only one?

The double "Amen" is a Hebraism from the OT as follows: Num 5:22 - and this water that brings a curse shall go into your stomach, to make your belly swell up and your thigh shrivel.” And ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

What kind of parallelism is Proverbs 18:22 and how is it translated?

Prov 18:22 consists of just seven Hebrew words and literally translates as follows: finds wife finds good & obtains favor from YHWH Thus, the BSB & ESV (most other are similar) translates ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Is Psalm 121:1 a question or an assertion?

Psalm 121:1 : I will lift up mine eyes unto the hills, from whence cometh my help. My help cometh from the LORD, which made heaven and earth. [KJV] Or : I lift up mine eyes unto the hills, ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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1 vote

What is Job's complaint in Job 24:1?

It isn’t easy to translate several passages of the book of Job, not only for its peculiar poetic style, but also due to the not-optimal condition possessed by the texts that have been passed to us ...
Saro Fedele's user avatar
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1 vote
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How does the grammar influence the meaning in «ἡ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη» and «ἡ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη» in 2 Corinthians 7:10?

Perhaps Paul puts genitive and not κατὰ+accusative for the "world" for it creates a wonderful equivocality: a) it may mean "one's sorrow for the worldly things (κόσμος featuring as object) that are ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar

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