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How should the, "discernment of spirits," in 1 Corinthians 12:10 be interpreted taking cultural context into account?

If you are suggesting that the "discerning" or "distinguishing" of spirits in verse 10 refers to something along the lines of divination, I don't believe that this is how the verse was understood. It ...
user33515's user avatar
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In Acts 2:6, was the miracle in the speaking or the hearing at Pentecost?

The important and critical verse is Acts 2:6 in this passage of v1 - 13. Acts 2:6 - And when this sound happened, the assembled multitude was bewildered because they were hearing them speaking, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Is there a contradiction between Hebrews 1:1-3 and Acts 21:8-11?

It appears to me that the OP's question is predicated on the assumption that divine revelation was complete with Jesus and there was nothing more to know about Him. This idea is explicitly refuted by ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes

Is the grammatical tense for Isaiah 9:6 irrelevant when it comes to debating whether Isaiah 9:6 refers to Jesus Christ, The Messiah?

First, Hebrew verbs do not have tense - there is no past, present and future tense in Hebrew. We have various forms of the Hebrew verbs such as Qal, Niphal, Pual, perfect, etc, for which English has ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What Will Cease when "The Perfect" Comes?

Ignorance is what will cease. The “ἐκ μέρους” means that we live and operate within the present where partial knowledge prevails. We only know in part (“ἐκ μέρους”), which is why gifts such as ...
Joseph's user avatar
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Does the Holy Spirit produce anger?

The operative word translated "anger" in 1 Sam 11:6 is אַף = "nostril" or "nose". To understand this, one must recall that Hebrew has no abstract nouns like "anger&...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Does the Holy Spirit produce anger?

Anger is not listed as the fruit (singular) of the Spirit that Christians cultivate, namely: Love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness and self-control (Galatians 5:22). ...
Lesley's user avatar
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4 votes

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does "The Perfect" Refer to?

There seems to be no theological consensus as to what Paul meant by 'perfect', in 1 Corinthians 13:10. For example: Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers: That which is perfect.—This verse shows, ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
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1 Corinthians 13:9 - How Should "Out Of" Be Translated?

This isn't really a helpful way of thinking about prepositions, nor does it understand the syntax of ἐκ μέρους in this setting. (1) Prepositions. They are "grammatical words" and don't bear typical ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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4 votes

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does "The Perfect" Refer to?

1. Question Restatement : What is the Perfect in 1 Corinthians 13:10 referring to? 2. The Answer : The Perfect is the completed Word that is totally sufficient to help Believers to live thoroughly ...
BobAchgill's user avatar
4 votes

How should the, "discernment of spirits," in 1 Corinthians 12:10 be interpreted taking cultural context into account?

Surely the preceding verses give sufficient context? Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I do not want you to be unaware. You know that when you were pagans, you were led astray to the mute ...
Peter Taylor's user avatar
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How is speaking in tongues a practice edifying for the own individual?

Man is body, soul and spirit. 1 Thess5:23 The body is a carnal/biological machine that houses the soul and spirit. “Jesus answered him, “If anyone loves me, he will keep my word, and my Father will ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
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Is praying in tongues to God in a private setting scripturally supported by 1 Corinthians 14:2?

If we dissect what is transpiring and the reasons why, maybe we could arrive at an answer to your question. Praying intelligibly occurs when the soulish part of man is engaged in prayer. This takes ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
4 votes

Are the mysteries in the Spirit (that no-one understands) uttered in a language that can be interpreted via the gift of interpretation of tongues?

There are two possibilities here - each with a great body of vehement adherents: A "Tongues" in 1 Cor 14 are "heavenly" languages In this case, the person does not know what he/she ...
Dottard's user avatar
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When shall we see "face to face"? 1 Corinthians 13:12

When shall we see Jesus "face to face"? The simplest direct answer is found in Rev 22:3, 4 - No longer will there be any curse. The throne of God and of the Lamb will be within the city, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Does the election of Matthias as an apostle via casting of lots (Acts 1:21-26) contradict 1 Corinthians 12?

No contradiction here; the Christian leaders at the Jerusalem council illustrate how this works. Example of Inspired Church Leadership From Acts 15: 7 After much discussion, Peter got up and ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
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Is there a contradiction between 1 Corinthians 12:29 and 1 Corinthians 14:31,39?

The apparent conundrum in the OP's question is readily resolved by observing the rules about what "all" means in each situation. πᾶς, πᾶσα, πᾶν (= all, everyone) In Greek, as in English, the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Does scripture allow for "speaking in tongues" to be in non-human languages?

Paul, in chapter thirteen, is making an extreme case to illustrate a point. Likely drawing on the notion that some human languages are more eloquent than others, he write that not even the eloquence ...
EvilSnack's user avatar
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Charis and charisma

The suffix -μα has several meanings, but it can be understood in one sense as the product or result of the action of its associated verb. According to Carl Darling Buck,1 Neuters.—G. -μα, gen. -ματος ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
3 votes

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does "The Perfect" Refer to?

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does “The Perfect” Refer to? Paul did not mean the completed Word of God. Paul had no use for a New Testament other than to tell the Gentile church, in Greek, what the ...
Bob Jones's user avatar
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3 votes

In 1 Corinthians, do 12:31 and 14:1 contradict 12:4-30?

It's possible Paul is encouraging the Corinthian church as a whole, rather than individually, to desire the greater gifts. In other words, to desire, pray for, and seek individuals with prophetic and ...
Bill's user avatar
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3 votes

What did the apostle Paul use the gift of tongues for?

The only meaning that can be given to the words you quote, 1 Corinthians 14: 18-19 (without any further information being available) is that Paul is saying that he preached the gospel to many people ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes

What did the apostle Paul use the gift of tongues for?

The answer to this question, "What did the apostle Paul use the gift of tongues for?" is explicitly answered several times in 1 Cor 14, namely: V22 - Tongues, then, are a sign, not for ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

How is speaking in tongues a practice edifying for the own individual?

Question: How is speaking in tongues a practice edifying for the own individual? Answer: In the Spirit, Mysteries are being Revealed NKJV, 1 Corinthians 14:2 - For he who speaks in a tongue does ...
elika kohen's user avatar
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3 votes

How is speaking in tongues a practice edifying for the own individual?

The word "tongue" simply means language. The Greek word is Strong's #1100, "glossa" and is defined as the tongue, a language. (1) It does not mean some mystical utterances. An ...
Gina's user avatar
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3 votes

What is "the gift" of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2:38?

We should immediately distinguish between: The Gift [ δωρεά singular] of the Holy Spirit as per Acts 2:38, 5:32, 10:45, Heb 6:4, etc. This is the miraculous power and work of the Holy Spirit Himself ...
Dottard's user avatar
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