Does the postfixed χ in Jewish Greek transliterations simply denote the aleph, i.e. vs. other vowels?
Is it corruption of the LXX for adding Deut 32:43 or of the Masoretic for lacking it as quoted in Hebrews 1:6?
How can we trust the Hebrew Bible to be accurate when the oldest MSS go back only to about the tenth century C.E.?
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