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8 votes

How could have Judas felt remorse, considering he was possessed by Satan?

For Judas to feel remorse would be easier than falling off a log. Millions of people feel remorse every hour of every day, when something they have done or said exposes them publicly as in the wrong. ...
Anne's user avatar
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7 votes
Accepted

Did Jesus address Peter or Satan influencing Peter when he said “Get behind me, Satan!" in Matthew 16:23?

The Greek grammar is unambiguous that: Jesus was speaking "to Peter" Πέτρῳ = noun dative Jesus addresses "Satan" Σατανᾶ - noun vocative That is, Jesus said to Peter, "Get ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes
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What is meant by "schemes of the devil" in Ephesians 6:11?

The operative word here is μεθοδεία (methodeia) from which come our English word "method". It is a rare NT word only occurring in Eph 4:14, 6:11. Eph 4:14 - Then we will no longer be ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Was it only Satan who tormented Job in Job 1:16?

The narrator speaks of a wager between God and Satan, in which God allows Satan to torment Job - even though Job does not deserve it - as a test to see whether he will curse God (1:6-12). However, Job ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
4 votes

The word "serpent" in Genesis 3:1 and Revelation 20:2?

"the serpent ... is the Satan himself" I think any other view is untenable. Consider the following Scriptures: Genesis 3:15 (DRB) [brackets mine] And the Lord God said to the serpent: ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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4 votes

In Matthew 4:5 how can the devil be called "the father of lies" (John 8:44) and yet be observed speaking the truth to Jesus?

In addition to Satan missing out one important line of text in his partial quote from Psalm 91:11-12, there is another point. I will not elaborate on that missing line as Ruminator has covered that, ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

In 1 Timothy 1:20, what is the meaning of delivering persons to Satan?

In 1 Timothy 1:20, what is the meaning of delivering persons to Satan? 1 Timothy 1:20 (KJV); Of whom is Hymenaeus and Alexander; whom I have delivered unto Satan, that they may learn not to ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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4 votes

Can wars take place in the Presence of Almighty God (Rev. 12:7-9)?

There are numerous passages that describe God engaging in war. Here is a sample: 1 Chron 5:22 - and many others fell slain, because the battle belonged to God. And they occupied the land until the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Pyrrinos G4447 correlation to Ezekiel 28 covering cherub and Revelation 9 at 6th trumpet

You seem to be looking for a connection between 2 verses in Ezekiel ch. 28 that mention fire (vss. 14 & 16) and a section in Revelation ch. 9 that also mentions fire. Ezekiel speaks of "fiery ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

Why is Satan not mentioned again after Job 2:7?

why is Satan not mentioned at the end of the book of Job Summary: Satan appears as much as is needed in order to achieve the purpose of the book of Job. There are innumerable questions like this that ...
David D's user avatar
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4 votes

Do translators leave out the definite article of Satan in the New Testament?

First, the rules governing the definite article are quite different in Greek and English. For example, English never has a definite article before a proper name: In English we would never say, "...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
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Do translators leave out the definite article of Satan in the New Testament?

In addition to Dottard's excellent response regarding the Greek articles, I would point out a few related details from the original Hebrew. In Hebrew, the article has a grammatical function which ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is Isaiah 14:12-15 a later addition?

The reference to "Lucifer" in Isaiah 14 is not a later addition but is consistent with the prophecy against the King of Babylon that begins the chapter. The figure of the archangel Lucifer ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes

Is the Serpent an illustration of an electromagnetic wave, even microwaves used to induce synthetic telepathy as experimented in the last few decades?

Short answer: No. I personally have serious reservations about that type of reading of a text. What we are essentially saying is that the serpent as a character in Genesis 3 (written some thousands of ...
Peter Kirkpatrick's user avatar
3 votes

Why was the serpent punished since it was only "used" by Satan?

It seems the story of temptation can only be explained in one of three ways: a talking snake, Satan disguised as a snake, or the whole story was a creation of man. Snakes are physically and ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
3 votes

Is Satan the master of music?

Archaeology False premise leads to false conclusion! The mystery of whether this passage elevates Satan to music director of some sort is moot. Simply because the whole passage in Ezekiel 28 does not ...
ray grant's user avatar
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3 votes

Where did ancient readers believe the bottomless pit to be located?

The likelihood is that both the writer and the original readers of the Apokalypsis [Apocalypse] to which you are referring, typically, would have conceived of the Abyss, or "the bottomless pit" (as ...
Adinkra's user avatar
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3 votes

Ezekiel 28:14 question Hebrew wording

You were an anointed guardian cherub. I placed you; you were on the holy mountain of God; in the midst of the stones of fire you walked. (Ezekiel 28:14 ESV) את כרוב ממשח הסוכך ונתתיך בהר קדש אלהים ...
Daniel Dahlberg's user avatar
3 votes

What was evil about saving the human life of Jesus by the apostle Peter?

Wanting to save a life is not of itself evil. However in this case Peter's desire is directly contrary to the will of God (and also Jesus' own will). It is God's intention that Jesus sacrifice himself ...
DJClayworth's user avatar
3 votes

The word "serpent" in Genesis 3:1 and Revelation 20:2?

The word in Revelation 20:2 is ὄφις (ophis) and it is, in fact, the same word used in Genesis 3:1 - according to the Greek Septuagint version of the Old Testament, which uses the same word. Earlier ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
3 votes

The Devil vs Satan

All punctuation in translations is somewhat irrelevant, as the oldest manuscripts had no punctuation or accents whatsoever and in many cases not even any spaces between words. Although Greek texts ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
3 votes

Did Judas commit suicide by hanging himself because Satan "had entered him"? or was it by his own "free will"?

At the end are all the scriptures in the New Testament related to Judas Iscariot. First we should note that these scriptures leave many unanswered questions about Judas. If God thought the answers ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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3 votes

Did Satan show Jesus a flat earth?

The passage does not say exactly what Jesus saw. All we have is what was written in Luke and Matthew. Adding or guessing at details would be speculation. The Bible is full of stories where we might ...
David D's user avatar
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3 votes
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Did Satan show Jesus a flat earth?

The assumption There is an underlying assumption with respect to the idea of kingdom, as humans we assume it refers exclusively to human rulers and earth bound kingdoms. This is mostly based on ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
3 votes

Did Satan want Jesus crucified or not? Matthew 16:21-23 vs Luke 22:3-6

Jesus emptied himself of his divine nature, became a human being, and lived a sinless life. He did this all without direct divine intervention, relying on God's holy spirit to provide only guidance ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
3 votes

How is Daniel 4:17 to be reconciled with Luke 4:5-6?

How is Luke 4:5-6 to be reconciled with Daniel 4:17? There is no contradiction, Luke 4:5-6: "All this authority I will give you, and their glory; for this has been delivered to me, and I will ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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3 votes

Was Jesus "reviling Satan" in John 8:44 contrary to the admonition in Jude vss. 8-9?

To revile is to "Call by ill names, abuse, rail at" according to my dictionary. Modern-day language might say, "to rant at". We all know what a rant is! It is a verbal attack of ...
Anne's user avatar
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