Good question - could take a book to answer! The key phrase which unlocks (or veils?) identity is in v. 12:
"O Lucifer, son of the morning!"
Hebrew: הֵילֵ֣ל בֶּן־שָׁ֑חַר | hêlēl ben-šāḥar
Greek: ὁ ἑωσφόρος ὁ πρωὶ ἀνατέλλων | ho heōsphoros ho prōi anatellōn
Grk trans.: the Day Star, which used to rise early in the morning
And, important in a moment, ...
Yes. The Hebrew שָׂטָן (śāṭān) is frequently transliterated into Greek as σαταν (satan) or σατανᾶς (satanas) — 36 times in the New Testament. The word διάβολος (diabolos) is also used (37 times).
Diabolos is technically an adjective meaning “slanderous”, and it is occasionally used attributively, describing people (e.g. 1 Tim 3:11). However, like satan(as) — ...
The Idea in Brief
The best translation in this passage is not “Lucifer” (or any similar translation with the image of the brightness of light), but instead “the one wailing aloud” falling from heaven.
In the Masoretic Text the word הֵילֵל appears, but in the Dead Sea Scrolls the word appears instead as היליל. The following image (below) comes ...
OP: Is it possible, through the interpretation of scripture, to determine approximately when this event happened?
Yes, I believe it is.
Luke 10:18 in Greek (SBL GNT), with the New American Standard Bible, reads this way:
εἶπεν δὲ αὐτοῖς· Ἐθεώρουν τὸν Σατανᾶν ὡς ἀστραπὴν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ πεσόντα.
eipen de autois, Etheōroun ton Satanan ōs astrapēn ek tou ...
The lexical meaning of the noun שָׂטָן śāṭān in biblical Hebrew is "adversary" or the like. It occurs 27x in 23 verses in the Hebrew Bible. In most instances, it is clear this it is best translated by the word "adversary":
in Psalm 109:6 it clearly refers to a hostile person;
in the Samuel/Kings references, it refers to human opponents of Israel or its ...
When the KJV and other Reformation-era English translations were written, Lucifer was already seen as a proper noun for Satan
The OED gives five instances of Lucifer being used as a proper noun before the KJV was written:
OE Christ & Satan 366 Wæs þæt encgelcyn ær genemned, Lucifer haten, leohtberende.
a1300 Cursor Mundi 442 And for þat he ...
The Greek grammar is unambiguous that:
Jesus was speaking "to Peter" Πέτρῳ = noun dative
Jesus addresses "Satan" Σατανᾶ - noun vocative
That is, Jesus said to Peter, "Get behind me, O Satan." That is, it appears that Satan had inspired the words of Peter and was at that moment dominating his thoughts - Satan was using Peter ...
The simple answer to the question is: we don't know specifically. So what do we know?
He refers to it as an "weakness" or infirmity, as you have it. It's the word astheneia in Greek. The same word is used in both places in 12:9. This "thorn in the flesh" is probably not a reference to the idea of the flesh as the sinful nature, but more likely something ...
Mark Edward did a fantastic job of covering the Biblical link between the serpent and Satan, so I will not re-hash that, but I would like to directly address the second part of the OPs question:
was John the first to link these two figures together? Or had the two already been connected in Jewish thought at the time? If not, is there any way to explain ...
Clearly No Distinction of Being
Your core question is "Did the Synoptic writers intend to convey any distinction between διάβολος and σατανᾶς?"
If by "distinction," you mean differing personalities (i.e. persons or beings), then I believe you have already answered your own question by noting the fact that Matthew and/or Luke uses διάβολος in places where ...
The serpent in Eden is said to be more "subtle" or "clever" than the beasts of the field. We are warned elsewhere that he disguises himself as a "messenger of light":
2Co 11:13-15 NKJV - 13 For such are false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into apostles of Christ. 14 And no wonder! For Satan himself ...
This is a good, piercing question that goes to the root of a lot. Unfortunately I have had to conclude [30 years or so of study] that we are not told the full answer to the question. First, there is nothing in the Genesis record that speaks plainly about a "Satan" being given authority over anything. Sticking to the text, we are told of a serpent who is a ...
While not wanting to detract from @Davïd's terrific answer, I thought I would point out a few other linguistic connections that add some food for thought:
Rev 12:8-9 is often mentioned in conjunction with Lk 10:18 due to the semantic similarities they share with Isa 14. While not containing any astral/lightning imagery (as Davïd noted), all three passages ...
I think this is basically a question about English usage. The Hebrew original has בָּאָרֶץ which you could translate in modern English either as “on the earth” or as “in the land”. It depends really on how you want to understand the word אָרֶץ . In pre-modern English the preposition “in” is not rarely used where in modern English you would have to say “on”. ...
We may not be able to draw a "definite conclusion," as you put it.
Jesus certainly spoke to Satan (or more accurately, communicated with Satan) on a number of occasions, particularly when the devil tempted Jesus to step outside his Father's will during Jesus' 40 days in the wilderness. In Luke 4:8 we read,
And Jesus answered and said unto him, "Get ...
Context, Context, Context
When reviewing this passage, it is important to remember three facts
Most scholars believe that this book of the Bible is written to a gentile, "Theophilus"
So it seemed good to me as well, because I have followed all things carefully from the beginning, to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus
The verse in question has an interesting parallel to Psalm 48:1-2, where the Hebrew phrase found in Isaiah (בְּיַרְכְּתֵ יצָפֹון) occurs in the Psalm (יַרְכְּתֵי צָפֹון) and therefore draws our attention to both passages.
Isaiah 14:13 (NASB)
13 “But you said in your heart,
‘I will ascend to heaven;
I will raise my throne above the stars of God,
Howard Marshall addresses this concept well in his NIGTC commentary on Luke. Based on correlations with Aramaic, the best aspect for the imperfect used here might be a simple past tense. However, Luke could have chosen the imperfect to indicate an on-going process begun in the past.
Marshall points out that the concept here is very active in Jewish ...
"the serpent ... is the Satan himself"
I think any other view is untenable.
Consider the following Scriptures:
Genesis 3:15 (DRB) [brackets mine]
And the Lord God said to the serpent: Because thou hast done this thing, thou art cursed among all cattle, and the beasts of the earth: upon thy breast shalt thou go, and earth shalt thou eat all the ...
In addition to Satan missing out one important line of text in his partial quote from Psalm 91:11-12, there is another point. I will not elaborate on that missing line as Ruminator has covered that, with help from Charles H. Spurgeon.
The other point that shows how Satan did not speak truth to Jesus in that instance is seen with the opening question with ...
In 1 Timothy 1:20, what is the meaning of delivering persons to Satan?
1 Timothy 1:20 (KJV);
Of whom is Hymenaeus and Alexander; whom I have delivered unto Satan,
that they may learn not to blaspheme.
In Corinth, Paul instructed the congregation to expel a man that was living with his father's wife.
1 Corinthians 5 :1-2 (NASB)
5 "It is actually ...
[During his life] was Judas [labeled] a "Christian" ( Χριστιανούς )? - No.
Although Judas was listed as a disciple of Jesus in Luke 6:16, Judas would not have been labeled "Christian" since he was not alive to attend the church at Antioch - based on Acts 1:16-19.
The disciples were called Christians first at Antioch.
8Again, the devil took him to a very high mountain and showed him all the kingdoms of the world and their splendor. 9“All this I will give you,” he said, “if you will bow down and worship me.”
10Jesus said to him, “Away from me, Satan! For it is written: ‘Worship the Lord your God, and serve him only.’ ”
11 Then the devil left him, and angels ...
According to Matthew, this is part of the Sermon on the Mount which begins in 5:1 and continues through the end of Matthew 7. In 5:1, Matthew states: "Now when Jesus saw the crowds, he went up on a mountainside and sat down. His disciples came to him, 2 and he began to teach them." so we can conclude that according to the author of Matthew that this is ...