Hot answers tagged

2

Note the fairly consistent way this is understood: Ellicott: (14) After the similitude of Adam’s transgression—i.e., “in direct defiance of divine command.” They had not incurred just punishment as Adam had, and yet they died. Why? Because of Adam’s sin, the effects of which extended to them all, just in the same way as the effects of the death of Christ ...


1

When Paul asked: “ “You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?”” ‭‭Romans‬ ‭9:19‬‬ ‭‭This word "will" (boulema) is used only three times in the New Testament:‬‬ ‭‭This particular word means something different than just will. ‬‬ ‭‭It can mean purpose, intention, counsel. ‬‬ : the thing that you plan to ...


1

The argument that Paul was refuting here is not a correct interpretation of what he had said. This is comparable to his statement in Romans 6:1 where he said, “What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?” Paul knew someone would interpret his teaching on grace to be advocating sin; therefore, he spoke their wrong conclusion and ...


1

OP asked: Never the less death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come." What is the “likeness of the offense of Adam” referring to? Here is the definition of likeness: 3667 /homoíōma ("likeness, particular similarity") is a comparison used ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible