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6

It is simpler in Greek. πνεῦμα is grammatically a neuter substantive and αὐτό is the neuter form agreeing in case, number and gender with the word it is constructed with. In English pronouns such as "himself", "herself" or "itself" have semantic gender, that is, they are masculine, feminine or neuter. In Greek the genders are ...


5

First, both nouns have the same meaning because they both the same noun but in different grammatical cases: Rom 6:4 - βαπτίσματος = genitive neuter singular = "of baptism" Col 2:12 - βαπτισμῷ = dative masculine singular = "to/for baptism" (NA28/UBS5). However, the Byzantine text has βαπτίσματι = dative neuter singular = "to/for ...


3

It is clear in the New Testament that Jewish believers in Messiah were also keepers of the law. There was no rebuke to Jewish believers for keeping the law, Acts 21:20. Peter kept the law after the ascension of Christ, Acts 10:14. The Jerusalem council excluded the necessity of the Gentiles to be circumcised (to be keepers of the law), Acts 15:23-29. The ...


2

I agree with Dottard that "both nouns have the same meaning because they [are] both the same noun but in different grammatical cases: Rom 6:4 - βαπτίσματος = genitive neuter singular = "of baptism" Col 2:12 - βαπτισμῷ = dative masculine singular = "to/for baptism" (NA28/UBS5). However, the Byzantine text has βαπτίσματι = dative ...


2

Two things to consider the difference in context and the symbolism that is more vivid considering the original meaning of immerse for baptism. Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized [/immersed] into [εἰς] Christ Jesus were baptized [/immersed] into [εἰς] his death? 4 We were buried therefore with him by [/through] baptism [being immersed] ...


2

Note the fairly consistent way this is understood: Ellicott: (14) After the similitude of Adam’s transgression—i.e., “in direct defiance of divine command.” They had not incurred just punishment as Adam had, and yet they died. Why? Because of Adam’s sin, the effects of which extended to them all, just in the same way as the effects of the death of Christ ...


1

When Paul asked: “ “You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?”” ‭‭Romans‬ ‭9:19‬‬ ‭‭This word "will" (boulema) is used only three times in the New Testament:‬‬ ‭‭This particular word means something different than just will. ‬‬ ‭‭It can mean purpose, intention, counsel. ‬‬ : the thing that you plan to ...


1

The argument that Paul was refuting here is not a correct interpretation of what he had said. This is comparable to his statement in Romans 6:1 where he said, “What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?” Paul knew someone would interpret his teaching on grace to be advocating sin; therefore, he spoke their wrong conclusion and ...


1

OP asked: Never the less death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come." What is the “likeness of the offense of Adam” referring to? Here is the definition of likeness: 3667 /homoíōma ("likeness, particular similarity") is a comparison used ...


1

The second last paragraph of the OP is not supported by the facts. Let me illustrate with some specific examples: Acts 11:28 - One of them named Agabus stood up and predicted through the Spirit that a great famine would sweep across the whole world. (This happened under Claudius.) Acts 19:6 - And when Paul laid his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came upon ...


1

Is "auto" neuter because the Spirit does not have a body and only a body can be male or female? No; the pronoun auto is neuter, because the noun it substitutes, pneuma, meaning spirit, is also grammatically neuter. If you are asking whether, in Greek, physically non-gendered beings or objects are always grammatically neuter, then the answer is no.


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