12 votes

In Luke, Jesus speaks about the righteous not needing a physician. Just who were the righteous? (Luke 5:31)

To answer your main question, there are none righteous in Luke 5:31. Christ is speaking ironically here. Even though His metaphor about the healthy people not needing a doctor (symbolic for sinners ...
alb's user avatar
  • 3,102
7 votes

In Matthew 6:33 what are "God's Kingdom and righteousness"?

Seek first...then... But seek first the kingdom of God and his righteousness, and all these things will be added to you. (Matthew 6:33) [ESV] The Kingdom of God is certainly a Kingdom in which God ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
6 votes

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

My dad, who is a pastor, has an interesting theory as of why. He says that prior to the Fall, they were clothed in light as a result of walking with God. They were physically naked, but because they ...
Christian Sirolli's user avatar
5 votes

In Ecclesiastes 7:28 why are there no upright women?

What the text says, and the author is quite clear to point this out by referring to himself in the third person (the only occasion, apart from 1:1, that he does this) and then saying 'I (have not) ...
Possibility's user avatar
  • 1,248
5 votes

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

The sudden shame for Adam's (and Eve)nakedness is an allegory, the physical of the spiritual. Not just the gained knowledge from eating the fruit. First, they were commanded not to eat the fruit ...
Susan Robens's user avatar
5 votes

In Luke, Jesus speaks about the righteous not needing a physician. Just who were the righteous? (Luke 5:31)

Nobody! Because “every man is liar, only God is true” (Romans 3:4), or as Søren Kierkegaard writes, “in relation to God we are always in the wrong”, therefore all men without any exception needs the ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
5 votes

If Jesus has never sinned and has never done any wrong, why did he tell the The Rich Young Ruler that He is not Good and that God alone is good?

The rich young ruler has approached a 'teacher' on earth and called him 'good'. And has asked advice from this (supposed) 'teacher' (who is supposedly 'good') how he might inherit eternal life. Jesus ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

1. Question Restatement: In Genesis, why did Adam and Eve become ashamed when they realized they were naked after eating from the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil? 2. Possible Answer - It is ...
elika kohen's user avatar
  • 5,339
4 votes

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

There is nothing in the Genesis account to indicate that this was an allegory.To do so it would mean to undermine the Word of God. Your perceptive question is addressed by almost all the biblical ...
Phil's user avatar
  • 111
4 votes
Accepted

Exceed righteousness how? Matthew 5:20

The Scribes and Pharisees had been hypocrites: Matthew 23:1-4 (DRB) Then Jesus spoke to the multitudes and to his disciples, 2 Saying: The scribes and the Pharisees have sitten on the chair of Moses. ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 9,562
4 votes
Accepted

Can a righteous person lose their salvation according to Ezekiel 33:12-16?

Since all men die, the "death" and "deliverance" that Ezekiel is discussing must refer to the man's eternal salvation. This passage in Eze 33 is one of many passages in the ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 102k
4 votes

Why did God impute righteousness to Abraham? Does Paul conflate Genesis 15 and Genesis 17 in Romans 4?

This is a very interesting and astute question. I have to confess that, in haste, I down-voted it as I thought it was adversarial, but when I pondered it again, I realised there was much to be gained ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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4 votes

If Jesus has never sinned and has never done any wrong, why did he tell the The Rich Young Ruler that He is not Good and that God alone is good?

Let's note what He did not say. He did not say, "I am not good." He did not say, "I am not God." He posed a difficulty for the man who called him good, without saying how to ...
Topological Sort's user avatar
3 votes

How does the concept of "righteousness" cause the Spirit to be "life" in Romans 8:10?

Three things in this verse need to be identified (1) What is this ‘death’ – literal or spiritual? (2) What ‘Spirit’ is being spoken of? (3) What is this ‘righteousness’? Only then should it become ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.8k
3 votes

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

Knowledge of good & evil (kge) made them feel guilty of being naked. That is why God forbid them from choosing kge. They were naked (which was sinful before the law or kge) & yet accepted ...
sudakar's user avatar
  • 41
3 votes

In Romans 6:16 why does Paul say that obedience leads to righteousness, when righteousness is God's freely given gift?

Yes, Paul is saying here that submitting to obedience brings righteousness in exactly the same way that obeying sin brings death. In this chapter Paul does compare and contrast the old man with the ...
DKing's user avatar
  • 239
3 votes

Does the Hebrew text of Genesis 15:6 permit more than one understanding?

Good question. First I would suggest not going by a fringe, unorthodox source like Jesuswordsonly.com. Secondly, I claim no Hebrew expertise, but point out that the normal understanding of this ...
Andy Doerksen's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

How is the imputation of the righteousness of God effected in Christ and how can the believer be “in Him”?

It just so happens that relates to the subject of my PhD dissertation that I am currently working on, so the subject is of great personal interest to me. In an answer here there is no way to answer ...
Ken Banks's user avatar
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3 votes

What is the difference between "righteous" and "good" in Romans 5:7?

δίκαιος (dikaios): observing divine and human laws; one who is such as he ought to be. ἀγαθός (agathos): good in the broadest sense of the word; kind, generous, benevolent. Romans 5:7 highlights the ...
Possibility's user avatar
  • 1,248
3 votes
Accepted

Is Peter implying that the righteous can lose their salvation in 1 Peter 4:17-18?

Liddell & Scott reference the Greek word makran in order to explain molis, the idea of being 'a great way off'. Thayer translates molis as 'with difficulty' or 'not readily'. Luke uses the word in ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 30.7k
3 votes

In Luke, Jesus speaks about the righteous not needing a physician. Just who were the righteous? (Luke 5:31)

The answer is in Luke 15 the righteous are those that has no need of repentance. In the same way, I tell you that there will be more joy in heaven over one sinner who repents than over ninety-nine ...
Daniel Dahlberg's user avatar
3 votes

In [Judith 10-15], How can God be pleased to allow Judith to speak lies in order to maintain Exodus 20:5, if Proverbs 12:22 is true?

Deuterocanonicity Many early church fathers accepted Judith as sacred including Clement of Rome (who may have been mentioned in Phil 4:3), Clement of Alexandria, Origen, and Tertullian. It was ...
Martin Hemsley's user avatar
3 votes

Is Psalm 85:13 a reference to the ministry of John the Baptist?

The answer to this is actually in the previous few verses of Ps 85:10-13 (the translations vary somewhat)- 10 Loving devotion and faithfulness have joined together; righteousness and peace have ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 102k
3 votes

What is 'put on' in Psalm 132:9 ? What is the 'righteousness' and the 'salvation' that clothes?

Checking this out, I went to the NLT Study Bible notes, which only muddied the waters because it uses neither the word 'righteousness' nor 'salvation' in Psalm 132:9! The NLT is a self-professed "...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.8k
2 votes

What is the Righteousness of God in Romans 1:17?

If you want to investigate the righteousness of God the best reference I've found is Iustitia Dei by Alister McGrath which is available online. It is a very long document - over 400 pages - but if ...
Ralph's user avatar
  • 41
2 votes

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

There is a deeply spiritual dimension to all of this. For further consideration by those interested in plumbing deeper depths in this account of the first couple's nakedness, I begin by quoting from ...
Anne's user avatar
  • 22.8k
2 votes

Genesis 2 and 3 - Why was nudity suddenly a shame for Adam?

Peace. Adam and Eve BECAME (hayah) naked….that is, they became without works of righteousness (God’s righteousness) to clothe themselves with. They were put in the garden to work and keep it.......
MSW's user avatar
  • 543

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