New answers tagged referent-identification
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Was John in the Spirit on the "Day of the Lord" or "Sunday" in Revelation 1:10?
I only found a couple of bible versions using Sunday in Rev 1:10, and it is a valid translation. New Matthew Bible, and MSG, and versions mentions Sunday in footnotes.
NMB
I was in the Spirit on a ...
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Was John in the Spirit on the "Day of the Lord" or "Sunday" in Revelation 1:10?
Despite the recent fashion for applying this to the Old Testament "Day of the Lord", my money remains on the more traditional "the Lord's Day", referring it to Jesus (who is also ...
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Was John in the Spirit on the "Day of the Lord" or "Sunday" in Revelation 1:10?
I don't believe the etymology of a single Greek word should be the proof to determine an accurate translation. The context in Greek as in Hebrew determines the correct translation, not semantics. For ...
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Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?
There is a significant difference between the "I am" statements of Mark 12:26 and John 8:58 for the following reasons:
Mark 12:26
John 8:58
"I am" is predicated and says "I ...
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Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?
In the Bible story of the Burning Bush, the supernatural tribal-national supreme deity of Israel and Judaism self-identified himself to Moses and boasted, saying:
וַיֹּאמֶר אָנֹכִי אֱלֹהֵי אָבִיךָ (&...
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Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?
Mark 12:26
And as for the dead being raised, have you not read in the book of Moses, in the passage about the bush, how God spoke to him, saying, ‘I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and ...
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Who does the phrase "I am" indicate in Mark 12:26 and John 8:58? What are the arguments if there is contrast?
The context indicates that there is no correlation or contrast - egó and egó eimi merely being the first person singular.
Me, myself, I.
The translation in Mark 12:26 of egó or "I" into &...
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Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?
Why can't both God and Savior both be coupled and seen as one and the same (God being our Savior as it is earlier in Titus) with no referent -- the referent to Christ being from Glory.
As if to say ...
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