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Pre-Christian, Jewish interpretation of Psalm 22

No pre-Christian commentaries on Psalm 22 have been preserved. However, this psalm is typical of the "lament" category of sacred Jewish poetry and would be understood as one of many such ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Is a mystical interpretation of Psalm 51:11 justified?

Whether it is "justified" or not is in the eye of the beholder, but it is clear that a mystical interpretation is possible. A typical description of mystical/anagogical hermeneutics from ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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In Psalm 32:5, do sins count or not?

"My people are destroyed for lack of knowledge...(Hosea 4:6a).
B. Card's user avatar
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Psalm 50(51):4 when Thou art judged (referring to God)

Let us take this in three steps about the last half of Ps 51:4: The Hebrew Text לְ֭מַעַן תִּצְדַּ֥ק בְּדָבְרֶ֗ךָ תִּזְכֶּ֥ה בְשָׁפְטֶֽךָ = that [you] are justified/vindicated when you speak and ...
Dottard's user avatar
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Psalm 50(51):4 when Thou art judged (referring to God)

In claiming that "'when Thou art judged' only shows up in translations of the Psalms according to the Septuagint in Psalm 50:4", the need is to state which translations have that. When Psalm ...
Anne's user avatar
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Psalm 50(51):4 when Thou art judged (referring to God)

I have heard such an explanation from one late saintly Orthodox Serbian bishop (I will put it in quotation marks, but I cannot tell the verbatim wording, only the gist of it for it was a live sermon): ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
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Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament?

The authors of the NT may not have made the connection between this verse and Jesus, or else they may have thought it did not apply because of what is said in vs. 31 (see below) John 12 4 Jesus found ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
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Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament?

Psalm 22:16 is not quoted in the New Testament, likely because a controversial word of it had been known at that time. The argument is the word "pierced", Ellicott's commentary read; They ...
Vincent Wong's user avatar
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Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament?

The original septuagint was only of the Torah. Psalms was not translated before Jesus's time, nor was Isaiah concerning 7:14. A lie many are taught.
James's user avatar
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Who are the two “Lords” in Acts 2:34?

Psalm 110:1 The "LORD" says to my "Lord"; sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your foot stool. Capitalizing "LORD" is a way of respecting Jewish custom of ...
Steven 1231's user avatar
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What is the significance of Psalm 119:168 having נֶגְדֶּֽךָ (before you) instead of לְפָנֶ֥יךָ (before you) as in Psalm 102:28?

There is very little difference between the two words in practice. BDB lists this passage specifically: a. locally (rather stronger and distincter than לִפְנֵי), (a) Gn 31:32 נֶגֶד אַחֵינוּ הַכֶּר־...
Epimanes's user avatar
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