12 votes
Accepted

Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

Paul was drawing an illustration from an Old Testament passage of Scripture, Jeremiah 18:3-6. In that passage, God sent Jeremiah to the potter’s house to learn a lesson. The potter was making a vessel;...
Dave's user avatar
  • 8,100
6 votes

A key question to ask of the "Good Shepherd" discourse of John 10

Excellent and perceptive question about the Shepherd metaphor in John 10. We should observe several things about this very eastern metaphor of the sheep. Ancient shepherds were mobile and wandered ...
Dottard's user avatar
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6 votes

Parable of the Wicked Tenants (Mark 12:6, Matthew 21:37 Luke 20:13) - Does it imply that God did not send Jesus to Die?

The question can be resolved by considering who it was to whom Jesus addressed that parable. Matthew's account shows that: "And when he was come into the temple, the chief priests and the elders ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

If an individual sins because God "hardened their heart", does that make God the direct responsible of the sin (i.e. a sinner)?

Introduction Sin is not the consequence of a hardened heart, it is the natural disposition of mankind after the fall. The hardening induced by God is related to the response to the opportunity for ...
Pieter Rousseau's user avatar
4 votes

Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

This isn't the conclusion I'd reach from a wider biblical basis, but hermeneutically this passage is an open-and-shut case to me. The authorial intent is as clear as can possibly be: So then it ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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4 votes

Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

The question is a classical example of a logical trap called "complex question" (I do not say that you intentionally and malignantly make this trap, of course, far from it!), that is to say ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
4 votes

Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

We Don't See the Big Picture as God Does Perhaps we should recognize that God's foreknowledge does not demand predestination (yes, we were predestined to be saved if we appropriated that salvation ...
Xeno's user avatar
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3 votes

Exodus's hardening heart of Pharaoh similar to Romans 1:24 & Romans 1:26's claim that God gave over women & men to their homosexual lustful sex acts

This is not actually a question about predestination, but of what causes a person's heart to become spiritually hard, and then hardens further to the point where that person is proven to all and ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

There are two categories mentioned in Romans 9:23 and 24. the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: [Romans 9:22 KJV] the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory, [Romans 9:23 KJV]...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes

What is the deeper contextual meaning of Mark 4:11's "outside"?

Mark 4:10-12 has nothing to do with Calvinism vs Arminianism for two reasons: This text is not quoted by either side in support of their case The very fact that it is so easy to explain in text on ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

What does “chosen in Christ before the foundation of the world” mean?

The simple explanation is to understand nothing more than what the text says: Eph 1:4 - For He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless in His presence. This is an ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Can God really want the salvation of those whom He determined beforehand not to save but doom to destroy? 1 Timothy 2:3; Romans 9:22

1 Timothy 1-2 ESV "First of all, then, I urge that supplication, prayers, intersessions, and thanksgivings be made for all people, 2 for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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2 votes

A key question to ask of the "Good Shepherd" discourse of John 10

What qualifies someone/sheep to be part of a flock? At the most basic level, they must follow the Shepherd, otherwise they do as they please and go where they will. ““Not everyone who says to me, ‘...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
2 votes

Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

The passage you are listing does not actually imply that Judas was doomed to destruction so that the scriptures might be fulfilled. In the ESV for example While I was with them, I kept them in your ...
Cole's user avatar
  • 121
2 votes

Does John 6:37 indicate that predestination does not contradict a person's ability to make a responsible choice?

Nobody is ever forced to "come to Jesus Christ". Nobody who ever does "come to Jesus Christ" is ever cast away by him, but is accepted by Christ. That is what that verse clearly ...
Anne's user avatar
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2 votes

Does John 6:37 indicate that predestination does not contradict a person's ability to make a responsible choice?

Definitions according to a hard determinist view of the Bible: "Choice". We choose. We choose on the basis of who we are. We do not choose who we are. We are free to be ourselves but not ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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2 votes

Does John 6:37 indicate that predestination does not contradict a person's ability to make a responsible choice?

Election - The noun προθεσις (prothesis), meaning a public display or a previously hatched plan (or both for the visionary hatcher who is to his own plan also the onlooker). This word describes ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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2 votes

Exodus's hardening heart of Pharaoh similar to Romans 1:24 & Romans 1:26's claim that God gave over women & men to their homosexual lustful sex acts

The best way to answer this question is to consider a few examples where the data is much clearer: 2 Sam 24:1 vs 1 Chron 21:1 – Who tempted King David to have a census? God (as per 2 Sam 24:1) or ...
Dottard's user avatar
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2 votes

Do Malachi 1:2-3 & Romans 9:13 refer to God Loving Jacob & God Hating Esau as hyperbole or a figure of speech, not Calvinism/predestination doctrine?

It is a quick thing to say, that in "but Esau I hated" Romans 9:13, "hated" is relative. I think that to make a case for "hated" being absolute takes longer: "......
C. Stroud's user avatar
  • 9,857
2 votes

Parable of the Wicked Tenants (Mark 12:6, Matthew 21:37 Luke 20:13) - Does it imply that God did not send Jesus to Die?

But did not the lord of this parable send also the servants with a hope that they would be heard? Had he been sure that the servants wouldn't be heard but beaten or killed, sending of them to those ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
1 vote

Do Malachi 1:2-3 & Romans 9:13 refer to God Loving Jacob & God Hating Esau as hyperbole or a figure of speech, not Calvinism/predestination doctrine?

It's a matter of a difference in the language. Love and hate were being used as relative terms, not absolute. The best explanation I've seen is Eli Lizorkin-Eyzenberg's explanation in his commentary ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

Why did Jesus create Judas only for the predestined purpose of being doomed to destruction - based on [Colossians 1:15-20] + [John 13:27, 17:12]?

There is nowhere in the Bible a concept of a 'free will' except in the case of Adam and Eve prior to their fall, the angels, prior to their fall and the new Adam, Jesus the Messiah of God who never ...
Mike's user avatar
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1 vote

A key question to ask of the "Good Shepherd" discourse of John 10

In John 10;1-16, 25-29, does someone become Christ's sheep when he hears his voice, or does he hear his voice because he is his sheep? In v16, Jesus says he has (present tense) sheep (1) that are not ...
John Rowse's user avatar
1 vote

A key question to ask of the "Good Shepherd" discourse of John 10

The difficulty with asking your question based on John 10 is Jesus used sheep as an illustration, and we can draw too much out of a figure of speech. This figure of speech Jesus used with them, but ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote

If an individual sins because God "hardened their heart", does that make God the direct responsible of the sin (i.e. a sinner)?

'To harden' doesn't mean 'to make into something,' but to have something remain in the state it was found by ensuring it does not change from that state. We can be sure that what God means by 'I will ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
  • 9,638
1 vote

Is God's foreknowledge (1 Peter 1) compatible with the belief in libertarian free will?

Is God's foreknowledge (1 Peter 1) compatible with the belief in libertarian free will Yes it is Similarly, how can God know beforehand who are going to be the elect if they can make use of their free ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
  • 13.8k
1 vote
Accepted

Is God's foreknowledge (1 Peter 1) compatible with the belief in libertarian free will?

What this post is not This is not a positive argument demonstrating the existence of free will. I believe that is a question better suited to: Philosophy - showing that it is irrational to believe ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
1 vote

Is God's foreknowledge (1 Peter 1) compatible with the belief in libertarian free will?

The foreknowledge of God and the human free will of mankind is a mystery that cannot be fully explained. Here is my pathetic attempt using an earthly illustration. A very good experienced classroom ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
1 vote
Accepted

Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

Yes, they do have free will. In Romans 9-11 Paul is not teaching determinism; he is countering the deterministic views of his opponents. Paul's Titanic Chiasmus Romans 9-11 is a massive, chiastic ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar

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