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Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence? No. If anything, without a pre-supposed idea that it might, it rather says the opposite. Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. 2By this you know the ...


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We can only make assumptions for their reasoning. They claimed He said He was God or assumed Higher powers that can only be attributed to God. Like existing before. Christ said before Abraham was I AM. He also invoked Gods sacred Name. EHYEH (I am that I am). Jesus is saying He literally met with Abraham. There is one recorded in scripture Melchizedek which ...


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The grammar of Psalm 90:2 in the Greek translation (the Septuagint) is really identical with that of John 8:58's. They only differ in the inflection of the prounoun. Psalm 90:2 (LXX) says that "before the mountains were...You are". John 8:58: "before" Abraham was, I am". Not only did the Jews understand Jesus to be claiming pre-...


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