20

No, John 14:16 cannot be used to "cancel" the Trinity and posit a Quaternity (or whatever), and specifically not "Spirits" of past and present. In the understanding of later Christian tradition, the Christian Bible depicts God as outside time in any case: see, e.g. Psalm 90:2 or 1 Timothy 1:17. That is why the "past" and "present" Spirits are nonsensical. ...


15

Short Answer: There is strong evidence from Scripture that they actually received the Spirit at Pentecost, and that what we see in John 20:22 was Jesus giving them a visual illustration and command in preparation for that event. The Controversy For reference, here is the statement in question: He breathed on them and said to them, “Receive the Holy ...


8

Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


7

Jesus' statement about the unforgivable sin comes in the context of an attack from the Pharisees: 22 The experts in the law who came down from Jerusalem said, “He is possessed by Beelzebul,” and, “By the ruler of demons he casts out demons.” They recognize that Jesus is doing the work of casting out demons, a good work, but instead of accepting this ...


7

There is actually no Greek manuscript that explicitly states what the NIV implies in Matthew 7:11: "how much more will your Father in heaven give good gifts ...". The Greek simply contains the adjective "good" (αγαθα) by itself, which most versions translate as "good things". The NIV is one of the few versions that imputes a meaning of "good gifts" to the ...


6

This seem like a simple answer but this section is talking about extra ordinary gifts. It is an unusual gift of faith to some believers only, not general faith in Christ. What these gifts were exactly and if they are still given today is a controversy within Christianity. Primarily the split is between charismatics and tradition cessation movements. For ...


6

In Acts 5:3, ψεύσασθαί means "to lie to", or as BDAG has it: to attempt to deceive by lying.... Ac 5:3 Note that this definition (2) is given separately simply to point out that it is a transitive verb that takes a direct (accusative) object. BDAG indicates this by the accusative pronoun τινὰ after the gloss. This contrasts with the usage of ψεύδομαι in ...


5

As I explained here, there are two phases to the interpretation of Scripture: 1) Knowing the text This is where you learn the literal interpretation via a study of the language, cultural references, etc. In this phase, you pretty much just need a working brain, good education in history and languages, diligence in your studies, and no weird spiritual ...


5

I think Paul is talking about the future resurrection, but with a very real sense of that future resurrection being something inevitable - giving us certainty, purpose, and hope in the present time. A few verses later we read about having been adopted as sons: 15 For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received ...


4

I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ "...


4

The word "forgive*"(aphiemi-to send forth*) implies a legal action: it holds one 'harmless' from a legal debt. To be declared "aphiemi", means one's debt has been satisfied; in the case of Matt. 12:30-32, one's penalty of 'sin and blasphemy' shall be "aphiemi" them-following, of course, the prescription of 1 John 1:9,"If we confess our sins; He is faithful ...


4

There are four instances of the Present Imperative (Second Person Plural) in the Epistle to the Ephesians where there is ambiguity between the middle and passive voice, because the literal grammatical verb form is identical. (Please click here for more examples in the New Testament.) In the Epistle to the Ephesians, every single one of these four verbs is in ...


4

There are (at least) four issues that must be dealt with in order to sufficiently answer this question, and much ink has been spilled on all of these issues. Issue 1: Context (and identification) of the scripture being cited If the author of James is citing another text, then understanding the original context of the quoted passage may shed some light on ...


4

Exegeting the passage τῇ δεξιᾷ οὖν τοῦ Θεοῦ ὑψωθεὶς τήν τε ἐπαγγελίαν τοῦ Πνεύματος τοῦ Ἁγίου λαβὼν παρὰ τοῦ Πατρὸς ἐξέχεεν τοῦτο ὃ ὑμεῖς καὶ βλέπετε καὶ ἀκούετε So then, exalted to the right hand of God, and having received the promise of the Holy Spirit from the Father, he has poured out what you both see and hear. (Acts 2:33 NET) Beginning with ...


4

Ambrosiaster, a 4th century commentator whose identity is somewhat mysterious, was commenting on the Latin version and not the Greek version of the text, but I think his explanation is still relevant: The Holy Spirit rejoices in our salvation not for himself, since he has no lack of blessedness. But if we have disobeyed the Spirit, we have grieved the ...


4

Matthew 10 didn't include the Holy Spirit; Acts did Acts 1:8 But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.” Before Acts 1:8 we don't find the Holy Spirit coming upon people when the disciples preached the Gospel or laid hands on ...


4

From your own links to Brown-Driver-Briggs and looking down the lists of occurrences in scripture, there does seem to be a comparative difference in the two words. Power (koach) appears to be vigour in procreation, vigour in the delivery of children, vigour in battle, vigour of land producing crops and vigour of various animals. It seems to indicate ...


3

I'd like to add something to @curiousdanni answer (and his comments) but from Aramaic perspective. In Aramaic Peshitta the word forgiven in Matthew 12:30-32 is ܢܶܫܬ݁ܒ݂ܶܩ which can also have meanings of left, ignored, omitted, dismissed (see William Jennings' Lexicon to the Syriac New Testament) and it is used in other verses in such meaning. For example: ...


3

"And Jesus ... was led by the Spirit in the wilderness for forty days, being tempted by the devil." There is no indication in the Greek text of Luke 4:1-14 that the Spirit left Jesus to fend for himself, even briefly, when he was πειραζόμενος ὑπὸ τοῦ διαβόλου ("tempted of the devil" in KJV). Ergo, the same motivation that moved him to go INTO the ...


3

While this topic is usually called the "Unforgivable Sin" I believe that is a bad translation and it should really be called the "Unignorable Sin". Verse 32 is: Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. (NIV) The Greek ...


3

I'll answer your questions in reverse order. First, the argument that it is the Roman Empire holding back traces back to the 3rd century. Tertullian and Hippolytus both argued for this position. But I'm not sure where the comment about a majority following this position comes from. The current consensus seems to be that the "man of lawlessness" himself is ...


3

I'm going to provide an unorthodox perspective for your consideration. Hopefully it is helpful in some way. It was too long for the comments so I'm putting it in an answer. I think to interpret this verse accurately we must first ask "what / who is being held back in verse 7"? Most people assume it's the "mystery of lawlessness" that is being referenced, ...


3

What is important to understand is that the gifts of the Holy Spirit operate in conjunction with the human spirit(pneuma). Paul is not suggesting he is merely praying with his own intellect, or his own 'spirit'; rather, when one operates in the gifts of the Spirit one must understand the Context one is operating in. Before we delve into Chapter 14, which ...


3

Beautiful question. Luke 11:13 εἰ οὖν ὑμεῖς πονηροὶ ὑπάρχοντες οἴδατε δόματα ἀγαθὰ διδόναι τοῖς τέκνοις ὑμῶν πόσῳ μᾶλλον ὁ πατὴρ [ὁ] ἐξ οὐρανοῦ δώσει πνεῦμα ἅγιον τοῖς αἰτοῦσιν αὐτόν πνευμα αγιον which is Holy Spirit. Matthew 7:11 εἰ οὖν ὑμεῖς πονηροὶ ὄντες οἴδατε δόματα ἀγαθὰ διδόναι τοῖς τέκνοις ὑμῶν πόσῳ μᾶλλον ὁ πατὴρ ὑμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς ...


3

The Seven Spirits of God Ancient commentaries (e.g. Oikomenos, Andrew of Caesarea) relate the seven spirits of God here to the seven spiritual gifts prophesied by Isaiah:1 Isaiah 11:1–5 LXX And there shall come forth a rod out of the root of Jesse, and a blossom shall come up from his root: and the Spirit of God shall rest upon him, the spirit of ...


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