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I am probably expressing a minority view here but I believe it is the correct one and people can feel free to push back if they wish. It seems there have been several variations on this question lately which shows me that it must be important. It is also interesting to me that I have not come across a single accurate translation of this text, and again, I am ...


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John describes an "event"; Philippians describes a "concept" Back to Hermeneutics, the Gospels are accounts of events. The Epistles are letters with explanation, correspondence, reproof, encouragement, instruction, et cetera. Opinion from experience: Is there an overlap of the topic in these passages? Many systematic theologians seem to ...


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Young's Literal Translation Philippians 2: 6a who, being in the form of God, being ὑπάρχων (hyparchōn) Verb - Present Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Singular Strong's 5225: To begin, am, exist, be in possession. From hupo and archomai; to begin under, i.e. Come into existence; expletively, to exist (verb). [the] form μορφῇ (morphē) Noun - Dative ...


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I interviewed Dr. Taylor (NLT) on Bible translation Your Question is about how Bible translators think. This is a good and normal curiosity for many Bible readers, which we should allow on the Hermeneutics site. I was in a Bible introduction class at Moody, and our group was assigned to research the Living Bible. The New Living Translation was Ken Taylor's ...


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You are right that there are similarities between the two passages in that both reference the time in history when the Word who became flesh dwelt among us on earth. But the focus of each text is very different. John focuses on the glory Jesus had as a man. Paul focuses on the shame and death Jesus experienced as the Son of God. This is pretty intuitive ...


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Philippians 2:5-6: John 1:1 form of God forms an inclusio with glory of God in the Christ-poem (vv. 6, 11). (2:6) Form of God (2:11) Glory of God The Greek word ''morphe'' means “form, outward appearance, shape.” (BDAG, p. 659) The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" ...


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Yes, they do in general terms, for both texts speak about the one who had been of the same level as and equal to God having been incarnated/become human. That this is the same thing, is evident, for the Biblical view is not circular so as to allow such an event as incarnation of God to have been made and then abolished by God infinite times, which would ...


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Perhaps it would just be easier to simply post an exegesis of the text and you can use whatever you deem helpful. In Philippians 2:6, the apostle Paul begins with the acknowledgement that Jesus is God and provides us with a revealed analysis of his redemptive function. Paul does not begin his discussion of Jesus from the vantage point of the incarnation but ...


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There is a mistake many might make in associating Jesus' name with his humanity merely. That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; (Philippians 2:10, KJV) I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall ...


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It seems logical to me that this peace-keeper would be Epaphroditus. We know Epaphroditus carried the letter back to Philippi, so he would be present among the congregation at its reading. Paul acknowledges Epaphroditus’s close connection with himself, as “my brother and co-worker and fellow soldier” (Philippians 2:25), which might qualify him as Paul's true ...


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It is not exegetically correct to understand Jesus' 'consideration' of equality with God as chronologically preceding his emptying himself by taking the form of a servant. Jesus did not consider equality with God at any time. The verse cited tells us that Paul encouraged the Philippian believers to cultivate a humble attitude like that of Jesus. Considering ...


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Can Philippians 1:6 be connected to 1 Corinthians 1:4-9? Yes, the connection is the indwelling Spirit. The indwelling confirms the believer in 1 Corinthians 1: 8 who will also confirm you to the end, blameless on the day of our Lord Jesus Christ. The indwelling Spirit completes the believer in Philippians 1: 6 For I am confident of this very thing, that ...


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Paul's epistles maintain a balance between warning of the dangers of false teachers corrupting Christians, and the assurance Christians should have in God's providential care of them. Paul uses very strong language to condemn one group of corrupters - those of the circumcision group, who were trying to get Gentile converts circumcised. I quote the section to ...


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Good question! A trinitarian or binitarian would use this text to claim Jesus must have existed in the "form of God" prior to his "days in the flesh" and its associated "emptying" to become a servant. So he was in God's form before he was in the form of a servant, with his birth somewhere in the middle. This must be read into ...


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Sure the two passages connect. This is a common theme throughout Paul's letters. For example. But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, 5 even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved— 6 and raised us up with him and seated us with him in the heavenly places ...


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Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus Christ's humility (Matthew 11:29, 23:12; Luke 14:11, 18:14). he was in the form of God As Adam and Eve in paradise, before the fall, since man (John 19:5) was initially made in God's image (Genesis 1:26-27, 5:1; Wisdom 2:23); see also Last Adam and Adam Kadmon. Typologically, the untilled ...


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The problem is the word chronological which implies a linear ordering in the dimension of time. God exists before time was created or introduced, John 17: 5 And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began. Does this text indicate a 'time frame' for when Christ Jesus was in the form of God? No, Jesus was ...


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First of all it should be seen clearly that when He was manifested "in form of man", it means that He became 100% man, and therefore, out of necessity of the parallel structure (unless we wish to twist the text at whim) the "in form of God" means that He is regarded by Paul as 100% God, and exactly this 100% is expressed by the term "...


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