10

Katatomē in Philippians 3:2 means "mutilation". It isn't used elsewhere in the New Testament, nor is the cognate verb κατατέμνω. However, the latter is used four times in the LXX. A glance over the three that correspond closely to the Hebrew (and thus to the English I'm able to pull up at Biblegateway) will give you an idea about the background associations ...


9

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this passage it is modified by the adjective γνήσιε, which is unmistakeably masculine singular vocative. Thus, “wife” is not possible here. Anyway, as you point ...


8

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6 In his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias in English translations of the New Testament" Jason David BeDuhn an associate professor of religious studies at Northern Arizona University, analyzes the word “harpagmos” in Philippians 2:6. Below are extracts of the chapter. How to translators handle "...


8

Original Greek: ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων μορφῇ is Dative Feminine Singular (shape, appearance, outline, form). μορφῇ is the root of our verb "to morph" (to change into another form). Θεοῦ Genitive Masculine Singular of Θεός (deity) Best translation would be "in the likeness of God", especially if we compare with LXX [Jdg 8.18]: καὶ εἶπεν πρὸς Ζεβεε ...


7

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. As one of many signs of his self-abnegation, he claims to subordinate even his own identity to those to whom he speaks. The contrast does not stop with law/not-...


6

δικαιοσύνην is omitted from the initial two occurrences of τὴν by ellipsis. The author is able to use an ellipsis (saving space on the papyrus) because the reader will understand that the feminine-gendered definite article could only be referring to one antecedent by anaphora: δικαιοσύνην. Hence, he has no need to repreat it two more times. In the third ...


5

Strictly Grammatical Look is Not Enough H3br3wHamm3r81's answer correctly points out the "οὐ μόνον ... ἀλλὰ καὶ" ("not only ... but also") wording in the verse, and correctly concludes "both" are granted. But that does not entirely answer the question of its meaning, because one must ask in what sense the verse is saying such is granted. There are at ...


5

Paul's text about "working out your salvation with fear and trembling" in Philippians 2:13 is actually more likely about reverent, obedient awe rather than being terrified of judgment. I conclude this for three reasons: Paul uses phobos kai tromos (fear and trembling) elsewhere to mean "reverent obedience": Look at 2 Corinthians 7:15 where Paul describes ...


5

OP: Why is "Out" Injected? Many modern doctrines/translations inject "Out" into this passage, "Work Out", which implies "figuring out", implying a process of reasoning, ".. Figure out your own salvation ...” The word “out” is “injected” because: κατεργάζομαι does not simply mean “work”. The word “work” in English is usually intransitive.1 I briefly ...


5

The verb in Philippians 2:5 is second person plural so that the verse says "Let this mind be in you (pl)" as opposed to "Let this mind be in you (sg)" The verse isn't saying that we must have the mind that was in Christ, but that we must put "this" into our minds, "this" being the humility that was in Christ Jesus. The first two words of the sentence (...


5

They both encompass Christ's entire life from birth through sacrificial death here on Earth. However, the emphasis is different. Philippians 2 emphases Christ's humility resulting in exultation, while John's emphasis is: but these are written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his ...


4

Meaning of κοιλια The word used here is κοιλια. Bauer (BDAG) lists three primary meanings1: the organ of nourishment womb, uterus seat of inward life, of feelings and desires (functionally equivalent to English heart) Significantly, Phil 3:19 is explicitly listed under meaning 1, not 3. So according to BDAG, it means stomach as in a organ, not desire. ...


4

Even the ESV didn't mess up this one, as διὸ does mean "therefore/wherefore/for this reason..." It is saying that whatever follows is at least partially because of whatever precedes. I don't see a conflict between these two words in this passage. Philippians 2:9 does not say that Christ earned a prize (implying that God was forced to give Christ this ...


4

The Greek word ἁρπαγμός is a noun denoting "to grasp at something" (source). This act of grasping can either be active or passive depending on the context.The active sense talks about "a thing to be taken" (res rapienda) while the passive sense talks about "a thing taken" (res rapta). Active To steal something by force (robbery)...


4

As other answers note, τῷ πραιτωρίῳ in Phil 1:13 may refer to either a place (the governor's palace) or people ("praetorian guard"), or in a more extended sense, the wider household (all this from Liddell-Scott). What is not noted is where this "palace" or "guard" or "household" was located geographically (which I take it is the main point of OP's question)....


4

Grammatically, there’s no reason for the verbal duplication. Thus, there appears to be an emotional or sentimental basis for it. Some interpret the passage as implying a disagreement between Euodias and Syntyche. Theodoret of Cyrus wrote,2 On the one hand, [Paul] is amazed at the women, but on the other hand, he intimates them having a certain quarrel ...


4

To answer this question one must answer what does Ἑβραῖος ἐξ Ἑβραίων mean? Here are examples of how translations have translated it: a Hebrew of Hebrews (NAS, ESV, NIV, ASV, NET, ISV, Darby, YLT) a(n) Hebrew of the Hebrews (KJV, NKJV, D-R) a Hebrew born of Hebrews (HCSB, NRSV) a Hebrew born from Hebrews (LEB) a Hebrew of Hebrew ...


4

The phrase is used by the Apostle Paul to state that he was the greatest example of someone who attempted to attain righteousness by trying to keep the law. Paul claims to be head and shoulders above his counterparts in the Jews religion. In 1 Corinthians 15, he states he worked harder that anyone else in their religion. 1 Cor 15: 9-10 (KJV) 9 For I am ...


4

Have a look at the passage below from Mere Christianity from C.S. Lewis. It is not so much a hermeneutical study of the verse, but may still clarify its context. Briefly, in his letter to the Philippians, Paul seems to acknowledge a complicated interplay between our works and God's works in salvation. He acknowledges this paradox in adjacent phrases, ...


4

In Biblical cosmology the earth or eretz in Hebrew is a plane that is covered by a dome and the underworld or Sheol is under the earth. Water surrounds the whole structure and above that is the third heaven where the unseen God resides. So when it speaks about under the earth it literally means below the dirt.


4

The Apostle Paul explains it quite nicely at Philippians 2:3-8. Vs3, "Do nothing from selfishness or empty conceit, but with humility of mind let each of your regard one another as more important than himself; vs4, do not merely look out for your own personal interests, but also for the interest of others." This is not hard to understand because ...


4

The important phrase, "I am God and not a man" in Num 23:19 and Hos 11:9 is absolutely correct in three senses: God is not man at the time it was written in the OT - the incarnation had not yet occurred! God does not suffer from the sinful tendencies in sinful man. Therefore, God is incapable of lying, unlike sinful humans that apparently find it ...


4

I interviewed Dr. Taylor (NLT) on Bible translation Your Question is about how Bible translators think. This is a good and normal curiosity for many Bible readers, which we should allow on the Hermeneutics site. I was in a Bible introduction class at Moody, and our group was assigned to research the Living Bible. The New Living Translation was Ken Taylor's ...


3

The word "apostle" is a partial transliteration of the Greek ἀπόστολον or "apostolon." Due to our regular use of "apostle" in English, we have attached meaning to that word as if it were distinct from a word like messenger. However, "apostolon" means a messenger or one sent on a mission. In Greek, "apostolon" is used to refer to messengers as well as Jesus' ...


3

A difference may be seen from the words used: For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,  not of works (ἔργον), lest anyone should boast, (Ephesians 2:8-9 NKJV) ἔργον - A noun; an act, deed, thing done. Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more ...


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