10 votes
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What is the meaning of "katatomē" in Philippians 3:2?

Katatomē in Philippians 3:2 means "mutilation". It isn't used elsewhere in the New Testament, nor is the cognate verb κατατέμνω. However, the latter is used four times in the LXX. A glance over the ...
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9 votes

Could Philippians 4:3 refer to Paul's wife?

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this ...
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  • 5,190
9 votes

What does in the "Form of God" mean?

Original Greek: ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων μορφῇ is Dative Feminine Singular (shape, appearance, outline, form). μορφῇ is the root of our verb "to morph" (to change into another form). Θεοῦ Genitive ...
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  • 410
8 votes

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6 In his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias in English translations of the New Testament" Jason David BeDuhn an associate professor of ...
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7 votes

Does Paul support deception to convert people?

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. ...
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6 votes
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What do the words "fear and trembling" in Philippians 2 refer to?

Paul's text about "working out your salvation with fear and trembling" in Philippians 2:13 is actually more likely about reverent, obedient awe rather than being terrified of judgment. I conclude this ...
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(Philippians 3:9) GREEK - Repeated Accusative Article

δικαιοσύνην is omitted from the initial two occurrences of τὴν by ellipsis. The author is able to use an ellipsis (saving space on the papyrus) because the reader will understand that the feminine-...
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5 votes

What was granted in Philippians 1:29?

Strictly Grammatical Look is Not Enough H3br3wHamm3r81's answer correctly points out the "οὐ μόνον ... ἀλλὰ καὶ" ("not only ... but also") wording in the verse, and correctly concludes "both" are ...
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5 votes
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Philippians 2:12 - How should "Work Out" be interpreted?

OP: Why is "Out" Injected? Many modern doctrines/translations inject "Out" into this passage, "Work Out", which implies "figuring out", implying a process of reasoning, ".. Figure out your own ...
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5 votes
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A question about the mind of Christ in Corinthians and Philippians

The verb in Philippians 2:5 is second person plural so that the verse says "Let this mind be in you (pl)" as opposed to "Let this mind be in you (sg)" The verse isn't saying that we must have the ...
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5 votes

Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event?

They both encompass Christ's entire life from birth through sacrificial death here on Earth. However, the emphasis is different. Philippians 2 emphases Christ's humility resulting in exultation, ...
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5 votes

Does numbers 16 showcase the reality of Hell/Sheol?

Answer to your Q 1: Can this be interpreted in more than one way? Of course there's more than one interpretation to this passage of scripture. You have mentioned one, and others will mention different ...
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4 votes

What does the Greek word διὸ mean in Philippians 2:9?

Even the ESV didn't mess up this one, as διὸ does mean "therefore/wherefore/for this reason..." It is saying that whatever follows is at least partially because of whatever precedes. I don't see a ...
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4 votes

What does "belly" mean in Philippians 3:19?

Meaning of κοιλια The word used here is κοιλια. Bauer (BDAG) lists three primary meanings1: the organ of nourishment womb, uterus seat of inward life, of feelings and desires (functionally ...
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  • 161
4 votes
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What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?

The Greek word ἁρπαγμός is a noun denoting "to grasp at something" (source). This act of grasping can either be active or passive depending on the context.The active sense talks about "...
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4 votes
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In Philippians 1:13, to which “palace” does the apostle Paul refer?

As other answers note, τῷ πραιτωρίῳ in Phil 1:13 may refer to either a place (the governor's palace) or people ("praetorian guard"), or in a more extended sense, the wider household (all this from ...
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4 votes
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Why does the Apostle Paul use the verb παρακαλέω twice in Philippians 4:2?

Grammatically, there’s no reason for the verbal duplication. Thus, there appears to be an emotional or sentimental basis for it. Some interpret the passage as implying a disagreement between Euodias ...
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4 votes

The Phrase "Hebrew of Hebrews" in Philippians 3:5?

To answer this question one must answer what does Ἑβραῖος ἐξ Ἑβραίων mean? Here are examples of how translations have translated it: a Hebrew of Hebrews (NAS, ESV, NIV, ASV, NET, ISV, Darby, YLT) ...
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4 votes

The Phrase "Hebrew of Hebrews" in Philippians 3:5?

The phrase is used by the Apostle Paul to state that he was the greatest example of someone who attempted to attain righteousness by trying to keep the law. Paul claims to be head and shoulders above ...
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4 votes

Does Philippians 2:12 contradict 3:9?

Have a look at the passage below from Mere Christianity from C.S. Lewis. It is not so much a hermeneutical study of the verse, but may still clarify its context. Briefly, in his letter to the ...
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4 votes

Philippians 2:10, is "under earth" a metaphor?

In Biblical cosmology the earth or eretz in Hebrew is a plane that is covered by a dome and the underworld or Sheol is under the earth. Water surrounds the whole structure and above that is the third ...
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4 votes

Did Paul believe that he would immediately be with Jesus as soon as he died?

The best way to understand Paul's teaching here is to see it in the larger context of his teaching about the resurrection. The source of our eternal life at the resurrection is Jesus and His ...
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4 votes
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At what exact moments did Jesus start and finish emptying himself in Philippians 2:5-8?

The Apostle Paul explains it quite nicely at Philippians 2:3-8. Vs3, "Do nothing from selfishness or empty conceit, but with humility of mind let each of your regard one another as more important ...
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4 votes
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How to reconcile Philippians 2:5-8 with Numbers 23:19 and Hosea 11:9?

The important phrase, "I am God and not a man" in Num 23:19 and Hos 11:9 is absolutely correct in three senses: God is not man at the time it was written in the OT - the incarnation had not ...
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4 votes

What is the justification for the New international Version and New Living Translation's translation of Philippians 2:6?

I interviewed Dr. Taylor (NLT) on Bible translation Your Question is about how Bible translators think. This is a good and normal curiosity for many Bible readers, which we should allow on the ...
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