10

Katatomē in Philippians 3:2 means "mutilation". It isn't used elsewhere in the New Testament, nor is the cognate verb κατατέμνω. However, the latter is used four times in the LXX. A glance over the three that correspond closely to the Hebrew (and thus to the English I'm able to pull up at Biblegateway) will give you an idea about the background associations ...


9

The word μορφῇ means "form, outward appearance, [or] shape"1 (occurring in the dative in this context following the preposition ἐν). To be very blunt, translating this as "nature" (as the NIV does) is a poor translation choice. Discussion of God's nature is theologically charged and thus using "nature" in this context could be misleading. The NET translators ...


9

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this passage it is modified by the adjective γνήσιε, which is unmistakeably masculine singular vocative. Thus, “wife” is not possible here. Anyway, as you point ...


7

No, these verses don't promote deception for the sake of mission. (1) 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is set in the context of Paul defending his austere life-style as a counter-indicator of his apostleship. As one of many signs of his self-abnegation, he claims to subordinate even his own identity to those to whom he speaks. The contrast does not stop with law/not-...


7

Original Greek: ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων μορφῇ is Dative Feminine Singular (shape, appearance, outline, form). μορφῇ is the root of our verb "to morph" (to change into another form). Θεοῦ Genitive Masculine Singular of Θεός (deity) Best translation would be "in the likeness of God", especially if we compare with LXX [Jdg 8.18]: καὶ εἶπεν πρὸς Ζεβεε ...


6

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6 In his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias in English translations of the New Testament" Jason David BeDuhn an associate professor of religious studies at Northern Arizona University, analyzes the word “harpagmos” in Philippians 2:6. Below are extracts of the chapter. How to translators handle "...


6

δικαιοσύνην is omitted from the initial two occurrences of τὴν by ellipsis. The author is able to use an ellipsis (saving space on the papyrus) because the reader will understand that the feminine-gendered definite article could only be referring to one antecedent by anaphora: δικαιοσύνην. Hence, he has no need to repreat it two more times. In the third ...


5

Strictly Grammatical Look is Not Enough H3br3wHamm3r81's answer correctly points out the "οὐ μόνον ... ἀλλὰ καὶ" ("not only ... but also") wording in the verse, and correctly concludes "both" are granted. But that does not entirely answer the question of its meaning, because one must ask in what sense the verse is saying such is granted. There are at ...


5

Paul's text about "working out your salvation with fear and trembling" in Philippians 2:13 is actually more likely about reverent, obedient awe rather than being terrified of judgment. I conclude this for three reasons: Paul uses phobos kai tromos (fear and trembling) elsewhere to mean "reverent obedience": Look at 2 Corinthians 7:15 where Paul describes ...


5

OP: Why is "Out" Injected? Many modern doctrines/translations inject "Out" into this passage, "Work Out", which implies "figuring out", implying a process of reasoning, ".. Figure out your own salvation ...” The word “out” is “injected” because: κατεργάζομαι does not simply mean “work”. The word “work” in English is usually intransitive.1 I briefly ...


5

The verb in Philippians 2:5 is second person plural so that the verse says "Let this mind be in you (pl)" as opposed to "Let this mind be in you (sg)" The verse isn't saying that we must have the mind that was in Christ, but that we must put "this" into our minds, "this" being the humility that was in Christ Jesus. The first two words of the sentence (...


4

Meaning of κοιλια The word used here is κοιλια. Bauer (BDAG) lists three primary meanings1: the organ of nourishment womb, uterus seat of inward life, of feelings and desires (functionally equivalent to English heart) Significantly, Phil 3:19 is explicitly listed under meaning 1, not 3. So according to BDAG, it means stomach as in a organ, not desire. ...


4

Even the ESV didn't mess up this one, as διὸ does mean "therefore/wherefore/for this reason..." It is saying that whatever follows is at least partially because of whatever precedes. I don't see a conflict between these two words in this passage. Philippians 2:9 does not say that Christ earned a prize (implying that God was forced to give Christ this ...


4

The Greek word ἁρπαγμός is a noun denoting "to grasp at something" (source). This act of grasping can either be active or passive depending on the context.The active sense talks about "a thing to be taken" (res rapienda) while the passive sense talks about "a thing taken" (res rapta). Active To steal something by force (robbery). To snatch at (spoil). To ...


4

As other answers note, τῷ πραιτωρίῳ in Phil 1:13 may refer to either a place (the governor's palace) or people ("praetorian guard"), or in a more extended sense, the wider household (all this from Liddell-Scott). What is not noted is where this "palace" or "guard" or "household" was located geographically (which I take it is the main point of OP's question)....


4

Grammatically, there’s no reason for the verbal duplication. Thus, there appears to be an emotional or sentimental basis for it. Some interpret the passage as implying a disagreement between Euodias and Syntyche. Theodoret of Cyrus wrote,2 On the one hand, [Paul] is amazed at the women, but on the other hand, he intimates them having a certain quarrel ...


4

Have a look at the passage below from Mere Christianity from C.S. Lewis. It is not so much a hermeneutical study of the verse, but may still clarify its context. Briefly, in his letter to the Philippians, Paul seems to acknowledge a complicated interplay between our works and God's works in salvation. He acknowledges this paradox in adjacent phrases, ...


4

In Biblical cosmology the earth or eretz in Hebrew is a plane that is covered by a dome and the underworld or Sheol is under the earth. Water surrounds the whole structure and above that is the third heaven where the unseen God resides. So when it speaks about under the earth it literally means below the dirt.


4

The important phrase, "I am God and not a man" in Num 23:19 and Hos 11:9 is absolutely correct in three senses: God is not man at the time it was written in the OT - the incarnation had not yet occurred! God does not suffer from the sinful tendencies in sinful man. Therefore, God is incapable of lying, unlike sinful humans that apparently find it ...


4

NASB Philippians 4:13 I can do all things through Him who strengthens me. [Christ] who τῷ (tō) Article - Dative Masculine Singular Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the. The word "Christ" is not found in the best MSS. That's one answer. How ...


3

The name Syzygus is not found in all of Greek literature, so this is unlikely. Chrysostom does not know, but guesses that it could be one of the women's husbands. Gordon Fee thinks it likely that it is Luke. The calling of this person "a genuine companion" brings to mind a close long standing relationship. In the Book of Acts, written by Luke, he ...


3

It is formally accusative plural neuter, but here used as an adverb. See: http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3Di%29%2Fsos (Especially under IV). The KJV is, as usual, about as literal as it is possible to get in English: “Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God”. Already ...


3

The word "apostle" is a partial transliteration of the Greek ἀπόστολον or "apostolon." Due to our regular use of "apostle" in English, we have attached meaning to that word as if it were distinct from a word like messenger. However, "apostolon" means a messenger or one sent on a mission. In Greek, "apostolon" is used to refer to messengers as well as Jesus' ...


3

The NIV Committee on Bible Translation simply lied and made up the new information they claim settled the matter in a way that supports the creedal formula "eternally co-equal with the Father". It was and is a bald faced falsehood with no basis in reality. The scholarship they appeal to is playing in the fields with the unicorns and leprechauns. Please note ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible