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11 votes

Should Philippians 2:6 say "in the form of God" or "in the form of a god"?

There is no 'indefinite' article in Greek. There is only an article. The Greek article is derived from the demonstrative pronoun (this, that) and is locative, not 'definitive'. The article locates a ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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9 votes

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6 In his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias in English translations of the New Testament" Jason David BeDuhn an associate professor of ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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9 votes

What does in the "Form of God" mean?

Original Greek: ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων μορφῇ is Dative Feminine Singular (shape, appearance, outline, form). μορφῇ is the root of our verb "to morph" (to change into another form). Θεοῦ Genitive ...
Codosaur's user avatar
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6 votes

What does in the "Form of God" mean?

The parallelism of the "was in the form of God and did not considered it a robbery to be called 'equal to God'", which means that He deemed it proper to be called "equal to God", ...
Levan Gigineishvili's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

(Philippians 3:9) GREEK - Repeated Accusative Article

δικαιοσύνην is omitted from the initial two occurrences of τὴν by ellipsis. The author is able to use an ellipsis (saving space on the papyrus) because the reader will understand that the feminine-...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
6 votes

Is Philippians 3:3 evidence for the worship of the Holy Spirit?

The text of Phil 3:3 is disputed by some. The difference is: οἱ Πνεύματι Θεοῦ λατρεύοντες (= those in spirit of God worshiping) as per NA28/UBS5, majority text, Byzantine text, SBL, Orthodox text, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

What does "belly" mean in Philippians 3:19?

Meaning of κοιλια The word used here is κοιλια. Bauer (BDAG) lists three primary meanings1: the organ of nourishment womb, uterus seat of inward life, of feelings and desires (functionally ...
Josh's user avatar
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5 votes
Accepted

A question about the mind of Christ in Corinthians and Philippians

The verb in Philippians 2:5 is second person plural so that the verse says "Let this mind be in you (pl)" as opposed to "Let this mind be in you (sg)" The verse isn't saying that we must have the ...
ElliotThomas's user avatar
5 votes

Should Philippians 2:6 say "in the form of God" or "in the form of a god"?

There is no grammatical justification for choosing between: A: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God B: Who, being in the form of a god, thought it not robbery to ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Should Philippians 2:6 say "in the form of God" or "in the form of a god"?

Verse 6 makes it clear that even though or as the NASB states, "although" or in spite of the fact that He possessed equality with the Father, Jesus did not cling to the prerogatives of His ...
Mr. Bond's user avatar
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4 votes

What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?

I have not yet seen any evidence that the active noun harpagmos, the act of seizing/snatching/robbing, can replace the passive noun harpagma, the thing seized/snatched/robbed. The claim seems to be ...
Alexander Thomson's user avatar
4 votes
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In Philippians 1:13, to which “palace” does the apostle Paul refer?

As other answers note, τῷ πραιτωρίῳ in Phil 1:13 may refer to either a place (the governor's palace) or people ("praetorian guard"), or in a more extended sense, the wider household (all this from ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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4 votes
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Why does the Apostle Paul use the verb παρακαλέω twice in Philippians 4:2?

Grammatically, there’s no reason for the verbal duplication. Thus, there appears to be an emotional or sentimental basis for it. Some interpret the passage as implying a disagreement between Euodias ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
4 votes

The Phrase "Hebrew of Hebrews" in Philippians 3:5?

To answer this question one must answer what does Ἑβραῖος ἐξ Ἑβραίων mean? Here are examples of how translations have translated it: a Hebrew of Hebrews (NAS, ESV, NIV, ASV, NET, ISV, Darby, YLT) ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes

The Phrase "Hebrew of Hebrews" in Philippians 3:5?

The phrase is used by the Apostle Paul to state that he was the greatest example of someone who attempted to attain righteousness by trying to keep the law. Paul claims to be head and shoulders above ...
alb's user avatar
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4 votes

Does Philippians 2:12 contradict 3:9?

Have a look at the passage below from Mere Christianity from C.S. Lewis. It is not so much a hermeneutical study of the verse, but may still clarify its context. Briefly, in his letter to the ...
J. Bowden's user avatar
4 votes

Philippians 2:10, is "under earth" a metaphor?

In Biblical cosmology the earth or eretz in Hebrew is a plane that is covered by a dome and the underworld or Sheol is under the earth. Water surrounds the whole structure and above that is the third ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
4 votes

Did Paul believe that he would immediately be with Jesus as soon as he died?

The best way to understand Paul's teaching here is to see it in the larger context of his teaching about the resurrection. The source of our eternal life at the resurrection is Jesus and His ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event?

They both encompass Christ's entire life from birth through sacrificial death here on Earth. However, the emphasis is different. Philippians 2 emphases Christ's humility resulting in exultation, ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the justification for the New international Version and New Living Translation's translation of Philippians 2:6?

I interviewed Dr. Taylor (NLT) on Bible translation Your Question is about how Bible translators think. This is a good and normal curiosity for many Bible readers, which we should allow on the ...
Jesse's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the justification for the New international Version and New Living Translation's translation of Philippians 2:6?

I am probably expressing a minority view here but I believe it is the correct one and people can feel free to push back if they wish. It seems there have been several variations on this question ...
Martin Hemsley's user avatar
4 votes
Accepted

Was Jesus obedient unto death, Phil 2:8; or He became obedient because He suffered, Heb 5:8?

Premise 1: Jesus was (and remains) sinless. Premise 2: Jesus took the form of a servant, ultimately becoming sin for us. (2Cor 5:21) The mystery of the Hypostatic Union is that Jesus was very God, and ...
Don's user avatar
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4 votes

Does numbers 16 showcase the reality of Hell/Sheol?

Answer to your Q 1: Can this be interpreted in more than one way? Of course there's more than one interpretation to this passage of scripture. You have mentioned one, and others will mention different ...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes
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Greek question Philippians 3:9 is it "faith in Christ" or "faith of Christ"

This is one question that has such a vast Biblical literature, I struggle to know where to begin. So let me suggest the range of meaning of phrases like πίστεως Χριστοῦ (faith of Christ) can have: ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

Is Paul considering suicide?

I cannot see suicidal thoughts in Paul's writing in Phil 1:21. For to me, to live is Christ, and to die is gain. The reason is simple - suicide is always caused by a loss of hope (the cause of the ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
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Is Phillippians a compilation of letters?

It has become commonplace in recent scholarship to try to split ancient letters into multiple parts, and claim that the letters as we have them to today are composites of multiple originals (e.g. ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
4 votes

Examining the Greek negative particle "ouk" in Philippians 2:6

In response let me offer the following grammatical points: The negative adverb, οὐχ (not) definitely modifies the VERB ἡγήσατο (hegestato) because it is NOT an adjective and so cannot modify the noun ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Is Philippians 3:3 evidence for the worship of the Holy Spirit?

οι πνευματι θεω λατρευοντες [TR] who in spirit God worshipping [literal] Pneumati is dative, thus locative, and 'in' is added for English idiom. (1) Latreuontes is the nominative, plural, masculine, ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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