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In which verses, if any, is the word ܨܘܘܬܐ used in the Syriac Peshitta Bible?

A search for ܨܘܘܬܐ and צוותא seems to indicate no occurrence in the Tanakh or Peshitta, only in Targums and Midrash. The infinitive צוות of the root צוה does show up in the Tanakh. The lemma ܨܬ does ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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2 votes
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Anyone know why Σιλωάμ in John 9:7 has the μ at the end

I found a possible answer on http://languagehat.com/shiloh-silom/ This is the answer someone on that site gave, you have to scroll down to the bottom to find it. Y says: February 22, 2014, at 2:00 am ...
ben.rev21.7's user avatar
1 vote

What is the difference in meaning between "The Lord" and the "Lord God?"

This is a significant matter in the Old Testament as demonstrated by king David when he wrote, "The LORD said unto my Lord..." (Psalm 110:1) and Jesus quoted that to make people in the ...
Anne's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the difference in meaning between "The Lord" and the "Lord God?"

אֲדֹנָי (Adonai) is "lord." Traditionally it replaces the tetragrammaton יְהוִ֔ה (yhwh) so that God's actual name is not pronounced. (In most translations when one reads the phrase "the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Which version of Ezekiel 37 is accurate?

All that one can say here is that the KJV and all other modern version accurately translate the Masoretic Text and those that translate the LXX accurately translate it. This is one of many thousands ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die?

John 12:24--In what way does the grain of wheat die? Jesus who was aware that he was about to die in a few days time, says to his apostles, Andrew and Philip . John 12:23-24 (NRSV)( Bold insert ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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1 vote

Mt. 22:39: "like" or "equal"?

The OP essentially asks about two similar but still distinct Greek words as follows: ὅμοιος (homoios) = "like, resembling, similar to, etc". It occurs 45 times in the NT, eg, Matt 11:16, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Zechariah 6:12 Branch, Denkha or Orient!

The confusion seems to be related to how the Septuagint (LXX) translated the Hebrew word. I couldn't find exactly why. The Hebrew word in the MT does not resemble the Hebrew word for east. Maybe ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote
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Remains of Aramaic/Hebrew version of Matthew

Direct evidence The closest thing to what you're looking for would be Shem Tob Matthew. It's a copy of the Gospel of Matthew in Hebrew that was written into a 14th century Jewish polemic against ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar

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