In the old testament (and in many ANE cultures), "name" was a synecdoche for the person, but with the connotation that this is the mechanism by which the person was known. In modern English, we only think of "name" as an identifier with no relationship to the underlying character of the person, and thus many of these "name" ...
A supplement to Mark Edward's answer:
Though "strength" and "praise" are two very different words, the "strength" in Ps 8 in the Hebrew text comes from "mouths", and the psalm is about praising God. It is not a stretch to think that the psalm talks about praise from the infants' mouths.
Moreover, the New Testament seldom quotes the Old Testament word for ...
As the OP correctly notes, Hebrews 1:6:
ὅταν δὲ πάλιν εἰσαγάγῃ τὸν πρωτότοκον εἰς τὴν οἰκουμένην, λέγει Καὶ προσκυνησάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ. (Westcott and Hort)
And again, when he brings the firstborn into the world, he says, “Let all God's angels worship him.” (ESV)
is most likely a quote of an LXX version of Deuteronomy 32:43
The short answer to OP's question regarding the teaching in James 2:10:
Is it in the torah?
A much longer answer discusses James's teaching as derived from Jesus (depending on Douglas Moo), and the essentials are given there.
It is important to note, however, that this understanding of the law (i.e., breaking one bit is like breaking the ...
This would take a book to answer well, but here's the gist:
Israel out of Egypt?
Israel in the Pentateuch was typological of God's people (cf. 1 Cor. 10)
(God's people would have to leave "Egypt", pass through the "water", follow God through the "wilderness", live by God's "law", etc.)
Israel failed to actually be God's people (cf. Hos. 11 and the rest ...
One argument that has been made is that the care for the righteous, i.e. the preservation of a man's (David's) bones in suffering, imagery is joined up with the passover theme. In the passover they were not to break any bones of the sacrificial Lamb.
46 “It must be eaten inside the house; take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the ...
The explanation is not contradictory. First we see how Paul expands the meaning of Habakkuk 2:4 in the relevant verse here in Romans -
Romans 1:17 (GNT)
δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγραπται, Ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται.
The key in this verse is that we live "from faith to faith" (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν). ...
Not ambiguous, but inclusive in meaning
Ambiguity implies two or more possible meanings that are unclear as to which it is, or more broadly simply being unclear. I do not believe that is the situation here at all.
Examining the statements
Let's start with the basically undisputed OT reference Paul is using in Romans.
The (very literal) ...
In Hebrew, the first "Lord" is Yahweh (God's name), and the second "Lord" really means Lord. So the text is "Yahweh said to my Lord."
The way Peter uses the words in Acts 2:34 seems to indicate that the second Lord is the Messiah. This is also corroborated by Matthew 22:42-45.
In the temptation story, Jesus is quoting a scripture passage, introduced by the words "It is written." The focus at that point is Jesus acknowledging the truth and authority of God's word. He is saying in effect, God has spoken and I must submit to that word.
In the Sermon on the Mount, the focus is different. Jesus here is a rabbi teaching his disciples (...
"it is written" refers to the OT as there was no NT yet.
Matthew 12:39-40 An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign,
and no sign will be given except the sign of the prophet Jonah. For as
Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish,
so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of
The Tanakh (the Old Testament) is replete with prophecies concerning the Messiah. Beginning with Genesis 3:15, also called the protoevangelium, there are hints, allusions, and explicit references to the identity, the roles, and the work of the promised Messiah.
Jesus explained (likely) every one of them in His conversation with Cleopas and an unnamed ...
ܘܠܐܦܝ ܬܫܥ ܫܥܝܢ ܩܥܐ ܝܫܘܥ ܒܩܠܐ ܪܡܐ ܘܐܡܪ ܐܝܠ ܐܝܠ ܠܡܢܐ ܫܒܩܬܢܝ
Around (in the surface, face of) the ninth hour (3 o'clock in Roman time), Jesus yelled in a loud voice, saying "Ayl Ayl lamana shabaqthani"
Written Ayl Ayl, lamana shabaqthani, Ayl means God in Syriac. It's independently ܐܝܠ but ܐܠ as a compound in names.
The Idea in Brief
In both passages (in Deuteronomy and Romans) the "Word of God" is what saves man. According to the Christian New Testament, this same "Word of God" was in direct reference to Jesus of Nazareth.
In the Christian New Testament in Romans Chapter 10, the Apostle Paul identifies Jesus of Nazareth within the Torah, where "the ...
It certainly apears that John 8:58 is an allusion to Psa. 90:2 since both share the same syntax.1 Both Meyer2 and De Wette3 refer to Psa. 90:2 in their commentary on John 8:58.
On his notes of Psa. 90:2,4 Frederick Field wrote,5
Jerome in Epistle to Sunnias and Fretela: “You are God.” And you say that “God” isn’t in the Greek [manuscript]. It is clear that [...
Several modern versions do capitalize Lord in Rom 10:13 such as NLT, NKJV, LSV, etc.
This is somewhat justified as the Rom 10:13 passage is unambiguously referencing Joel 2:32 as the OP has correctly pointed out. That Paul is referring to Jesus as "Lord" in Rom 10:13 is beyond doubt; and the fact that he quotes an OT text referring to Jehovah/YHWH ...
This is a messianic vision, and David is primarily concerned here with Christ and his place with God, and his Priesthood Authority.
I see the first part of your question as having two elements. Element 1, "The Lord says to My Lord" is a conversation between God The Father (Elohim) and Christ The Son (Jesus Christ). Element 2, it was necessary to ...
1. Question Restatement:
In Eph. 4:8, Why does Paul translate Ps 68:18 ("to Take") - using the exact opposite term: ἔδωκεν ("to Give")?
In Psalms 68:18, לָקַ֣חְתָּ is translated into Greek, as: ἔλαβες, ("to take"):
LXX, Ps 68:18 - You have ascended on high. You have led away captives. You have received gifts [taken gifts, ἔλαβες δόματα] - among men [ἐν ...
James got the idea that "if you break one commandment, you break them all", right from Scripture of course.
Cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them. And all the people shall say, Amen.
-- Deuteronomy 27:26 KJV
And say thou unto them, Thus saith the LORD God of Israel; Cursed be the man that obeyeth not the words of ...
The comment of the Apostle Paul that “The worker deserves his pay” appears to have been the prevailing interpretation of this verse according to the oral traditions of the Jews during the First Century and beyond.
For example, in regard to this passage from Deuteronomy, the Jewish historian Flavius Josephus wrote the following in his compendium on the ...
The question in a sense has no answer because it contains an incorrect premise - that Jesus and John were 'cuddling'.
As Benson says,
"This phrase only expresses the then customary posture at meals, where the guests all leaned sideways on couches, and each was said to lie in the bosom of him who was placed next above him"
Then the LORD God said, “It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him a helper fit for him.” (Genesis 2:18) [ESV]
ויאמר יהוה אלהים לא־טוב היות האדם לבדו אעשה־לו עזר כנגדו
"Helper" is עזר, one who helps; other than Genesis 2:18, 20, it is never used to refer to only a woman or wife. The term is used 21 times and 16 are in reference ...
The question and the answers suffers from the assumption that the Psalms are prophecy, rather than statements of fact or faith, and also from the inconvenience that in context, Christologic explanations make no sense.
The theme of Psalm 34, written by King David, is God's relationship with the righteous and evildoers. According to Rabbi Samson Raphael ...
James explains the reasoning employed in verse 10 in the immediately following verses:
For he who said, "Do not commit adultery," also said, "Do not murder."
Now if you do not commit adultery but do commit murder, you have
become a violator of the law. (Jas 2:11-12 ESV)
James is expressing the Jewish view (shared by Romans) that the law was ...
"It is finished"
The finished in v.28 "all was now finished", is the same Gr. telein as in v.30. Acc. to R.E. Brown1, this "has the connotation of completion as well as that of simple ending." He adds, "Occasionally it has sacrificial overtones." He also relates this telein to the telos of John 13:1 "he now loved ...