26
votes
How could King Herod have killed John the baptist in Matthew 14?
There are three Herods in scripture.
1 The one that killed the infants at the time of Jesus' birth - 'Herod the Great'.
2 The one that killed John the Baptist - 'Herod Antipas'. (Also 'the Tetrarch'....
- 29.6k
21
votes
Accepted
How could King Herod have killed John the baptist in Matthew 14?
Here is an extract from Wikipedia about the Herodian family (source):
Herod the Great (born c. 74 BC, ruled 37–4 BC), client king of Judea who built the Second Temple (in Jerusalem) and in the New ...
- 95.7k
9
votes
What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?
What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6
In his book "TRUTH IN TRANSLATION Accuracy and Bias in English translations of the New Testament" Jason David BeDuhn an associate professor of ...
- 13.7k
7
votes
What does 1 Corinthians 15:19 actually mean?
It means if there is no afterlife then why bother go through all the opposition, persecution, and trouble of living for God? Why lose friends when we turn to Christ, why give up sinful pleasures? ...
- 838
7
votes
Accepted
How to understand John 4 in light of Exodus 17 and Numbers 20?
The question makes a leap of logic that is unwarranted.
In all the cases cited, Ex 17:17, Num 20:2, literal (as distinct from spiritual or figurative) water is in view.
This leaves us with 1 Cor 10:3 ...
- 95.7k
6
votes
Accepted
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
John 5:4 is a verse that is variously included or excluded in various manuscripts upon which the modern edited versions depend. Thus, the question is purely a textual criticism problem.
Of the ...
- 95.7k
6
votes
What do the "Goodrick-Kohlenberger" numbers represent? What features does this system offer in distinction from previous numbering systems?
From the Introduction to the NIV Exhaustive Concordance [NIVEC], with some interspersed commentary:
Advances in biblical scholarship have made it difficult, if not impossible, to use Strong's ...
- 178
6
votes
What's the correct translation of Galatians 5:17
While the NIV translation appears to be a command,. the Greek is definitely not. Both the verbs θέλητε (you might wish) and ποιῆτε (you might do) are subjunctive (ie, not imperative). Here is my ...
- 95.7k
5
votes
Accepted
What manuscripts did people use to create the NIV and KJV? Are the manuscripts used to fashion the NIV older than the KJV?
Both versions use distinct sets of manuscripts for the Old Testament and New Testament.
One might say that the NIV uses an "older" Old Testament manuscript on occasion by deferring to the Septuagint ...
- 12.1k
5
votes
What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?
The NIV Committee on Bible Translation simply lied and made up the new information they claim settled the matter in a way that supports the creedal formula "eternally co-equal with the Father". It was ...
- 14.8k
4
votes
Ecclesiastes 3:11 - "...so that nobody can understand it"
Comparing Translations
"Which one is the correct one?"
One of the challenges in interpreting the scriptures is that we cannot always be 100% confident of what the original authors intended when they ...
- 5,596
4
votes
What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?
I have not yet seen any evidence that the active noun harpagmos, the act of seizing/snatching/robbing, can replace the passive noun harpagma, the thing seized/snatched/robbed. The claim seems to be ...
4
votes
Why were the Sabbath breakers not punished in Exodus 16:27-28?
The argument is about the difference between will and subsequent action.
The Numbers' (15:33) Israelite man had the will to gathering wood, as well as performed the action to gather wood.
The ...
- 2,590
4
votes
Why were the Sabbath breakers not punished in Exodus 16:27-28?
If nothing was found on the sabbath, then no work was done in carrying it back to the tents.
Therefore, the sabbath was not violated (in any way which could be proved).
All that happened was that ...
- 29.6k
4
votes
Why do English bibles change "Yearn for Purity" (נַשְּׁקוּ בַר) in Psalm 2:12 to "Kiss the Son" or "Kiss his Son"?
Uncertain Hebrew Phrase
Jewish scholars state the meaning of the phrase נשקו־בר, which the OP states means yearn for purity or kiss the son as in the NIV and others, is uncertain:
d pay homage in ...
- 15.4k
4
votes
How to understand John 4 in light of Exodus 17 and Numbers 20?
Water is important to sustain life, in this way, Jesus was saying that He is the way to get everlasting life. He must have noticed the woman's will to learn about the events foretold. Her spiritual ...
4
votes
What is the justification for the New international Version and New Living Translation's translation of Philippians 2:6?
I interviewed Dr. Taylor (NLT) on Bible translation
Your Question is about how Bible translators think. This is a good and normal curiosity for many Bible readers, which we should allow on the ...
- 1,815
4
votes
What is the justification for the New international Version and New Living Translation's translation of Philippians 2:6?
I am probably expressing a minority view here but I believe it is the correct one and people can feel free to push back if they wish. It seems there have been several variations on this question ...
- 1,393
3
votes
Accepted
What is the 'me' in "masoretic text me" in the NIV note on Psalms 22:16?
The NIV footnote is simply stating that after the word “me,” “most manuscripts of the Masoretic text” read “like a lion.” The word “me” is actually in all manuscripts, as it is indicated by the ...
- 11.4k
3
votes
What is the meaning of "strike my hands together" in Ezekiel 22:13?
It is not exactly hitting hands, but more like clapping the hands, not by the way of happiness
Rashi (Rabi Shlomo Yitzhaki): הכיתי כפי. צעקתי ווי וקינה :
Rashi says that "strike my hands together" ...
- 172
3
votes
Why does the NIV translate Psalms 52:1 differently than many other translations?
To the choirmaster. A Maskil of David, when Doeg, the Edomite, came and told Saul, “David has come to the house of Ahimelech.” Why do you boast of evil, O mighty man? The steadfast love of God endures ...
- 15.4k
3
votes
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
If you like short answers, I would say 0% since it was not found in the earliest MSS. There would be no incentive for a scribe to remove a verse which fits in perfectly with verse 7. That goes for the ...
- 1,393
3
votes
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
The verse is extremely unlikely to be original, and evidently a latter addition, as the NET Bible notes on John 5:3:
9 tc The majority of later mss (C Θ Ψ 078 ƒ M) add the following to 5:3: “waiting ...
- 4,949
3
votes
Accepted
What does the word harpagmos mean in Philippians 2:6?
The Greek word ἁρπαγμός is a noun denoting "to grasp at something" (source).
This act of grasping can either be active or passive depending on the context.The active sense talks about "...
- 6,003
3
votes
Accepted
What does 1 Corinthians 15:19 actually mean?
It might be easier for you to understand the statement if it were put into a more natural modern English word order, such as:
We are the most pitied of all people if we have hope in Christ for only ...
- 5,823
3
votes
Did Elisha tell Hazael that Ben Hadad will recover in 2 Kings 8?
This is a case of ketiv and qere.
The ketiv (written text) has לא which is usually a particle of negation:
לך אמר לא חיה תחיה
Go say, "You will surely not live."
The qere (read version) ...
- 3,738
3
votes
What does 1 Corinthians 15:19 actually mean?
The logic is that being a Christian implies a difficult life of following the path of Jesus: suffering unjust insults, ingratitude from those whom you have done good, and moreover, not being allowed ...
- 10.2k
Only top scored, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible