9
votes
Accepted
How does the Douay Rheims Bible translate שַׁדַּי as God of Jacob in Psalms 91:1?
The Douay-Rheims version is a translation of the Vulgate. The Vulgate to Psalms seems to have gone through multiple revisions. I looked through all the versions I could find easily and found these ...
- 3,710
9
votes
What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing "Word" in 1 John 1:1?
I don't think it's a mistake in the NASB. The identity of ὁ λόγος ("the word") in 1 John 1:1 is puzzling and may have been intentionally ambiguous. To make matters more complicated, the syntax of vv. ...
- 26.1k
8
votes
Accepted
Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?
The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law.
The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets):
P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
- 85.9k
8
votes
Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?
The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550.
Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
- 28.5k
6
votes
Accepted
Could Abimelech be regarded as the first king of Israel?
It is only the men of Shechem and the house of Millo which the text mentions. It is not even a complete tribe. So, therefore, significant though the use of the word 'king' is, the last words in Judges ...
- 28.5k
6
votes
Accepted
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
John 5:4 is a verse that is variously included or excluded in various manuscripts upon which the modern edited versions depend. Thus, the question is purely a textual criticism problem.
Of the ...
- 85.9k
5
votes
Accepted
How to understand Genesis 17:27 NASB?
Exodus 12:44 elaborates the phrase in question as, עֶבֶד אִישׁ מִקְנַת־כָּסֶף (eved ish miknat-kesef), “a slave, a man purchase of money.” Abraham was to circumcise both his own offspring (e.g., ...
- 10.6k
5
votes
Accepted
Who are the archers in Genesis 49:23?
Jacob's blessing on Joseph is full of symbolism. Joseph himself is likened to a fruitful bough of a tree by a spring.
The mention of the archers who bitterly attack him and harass him is a figure of ...
- 8,426
4
votes
Accepted
What does the phrase 'she may bear on my knees' mean in Genesis 30:3?
To "bear upon the knees" is a very Hebrew piece of idiom surrounding the birthing custom of the time. When a child was born, it was placed, usually on the knees (in modern terms we say &...
- 85.9k
4
votes
Nasb 2020 implying creation not in 7 days?
The Hebrew here is pretty interesting and poses awkwardness for English translation:
וַיְהִי עֶרֶב וַיְהִי בֹקֶר יוֹם אֶחָד
wayəhî-ʿereḇ wayəhî-ḇōqer yôm ʾeḥāḏ
Literally translated, this means:
and ...
- 8,056
3
votes
Accepted
Did Leah have a physical defect in Genesis 29:17?
The name "Leah" (לֵאָ֖ה) means 'weary'. - Genesis 29:17 is a Hebrew pun : The eyes of Weary (לֵאָ֖ה) were weak.
Genesis 29:17 [MT]
"and The eyes of Leah were weak" (וְעֵינֵ֥י ...
- 8,151
3
votes
Are there exegetical differences between 'your mother and fathers wife' in Leviticus 18:7-8?
I think this is less complicated than it appears.
Lev 18:7 says - You must not expose the nakedness of your father by
having sexual relations with your mother. She is your mother; you must
not have ...
- 85.9k
3
votes
How does the Douay Rheims Bible(DRB) translate burnt offering עֹלָ֥ה as Holocaust in Numbers 28:3?
The original meaning of the word in the 16th century:
The word Holocaust is derived from the Greek holokauston, a translation of the Hebrew word ʿolah, meaning a burnt sacrifice offered whole to ...
- 18.8k
3
votes
Why do some translators include the phrase 'this shall be/seen' in Exodus 16:8?
This is so because the text wouldn't make sense without it. Taken literally the text just says: When God gives you bread at night etc." but of course this sentence is incomplete and unreadable as it ...
- 7,104
3
votes
Why does the NIV translate Psalms 52:1 differently than many other translations?
To the choirmaster. A Maskil of David, when Doeg, the Edomite, came and told Saul, “David has come to the house of Ahimelech.” Why do you boast of evil, O mighty man? The steadfast love of God endures ...
- 14.6k
3
votes
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
If you like short answers, I would say 0% since it was not found in the earliest MSS. There would be no incentive for a scribe to remove a verse which fits in perfectly with verse 7. That goes for the ...
- 1,393
3
votes
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
The verse is extremely unlikely to be original, and evidently a latter addition, as the NET Bible notes on John 5:3:
9 tc The majority of later mss (C Θ Ψ 078 ƒ M) add the following to 5:3: “waiting ...
- 4,300
3
votes
Accepted
What does the Greek word ὁμοιοπαθής mean in Acts 14:15?
There is no exegetical warrant necessary here: the meaning "having the same nature" is perfectly in line with ordinary Ancient Greek usage.
One of the principal meanings of the noun πάθος is ...
- 377
3
votes
NASB 2020 Translation choice in Exodus 39:5
Why did NASB replace אֲפֻדָּת֜וֹ "of its Ephod" with "of its Overlay" in Exodus 39:5?
In consideration of [Exodus 29:5] which lists all 5-Layers of Aharon's priestly Garments ...
- 8,151
2
votes
Accepted
Why is the position of the verse marker of 1 John 2:14 inconsistent?
There is a difference in how these verses are divided in different editions of the Greek text. The explanation for why this is so, however, is a little convoluted. Probably 1 John 2:13-14 isn't the ...
- 11.8k
2
votes
Is it adulterers and adulteresses in James 4:4?
There is a difference in the various textual types at this point. The manuscripts fall into just two types:
A: Those that say, "Adulteresses" [Μοιχαλίδες (Moichalides)] include the following (with ...
- 85.9k
2
votes
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
The Revised Standard Version and some others omit this fourth verse with the reason given that it was insufficiently supported by earlier text.
However, John 5:3 and 7 could not be properly understood ...
- 7,813
2
votes
Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?
John 5:4 isn't in the earliest New Testament manuscripts. Here is Bruce Metzger's comment:
5:4 omit verse {A}
Ver. 4 is a gloss, whose secondary character is clear from (1) its absence from ...
- 18.8k
2
votes
How is food connected to sexually immorality in 1 Corinthians 6:13-18?
“All things are lawful (permissible) for me, but not all things are
profitable (beneficial). All things are lawful for me, but I will not
be mastered by anything. Food is for the stomach and the ...
- 3,167
2
votes
How is food connected to sexually immorality in 1 Corinthians 6:13-18?
How is food connected to sexually immorality in 1 Corinthians 6:13-18?
1 Corinthians 6:13 NASB
13" Food is for the stomach and the stomach is for food, but God will
do away with both [i]of them. ...
- 13.4k
2
votes
How does the NASB render καρδίαν as quick in Acts 7:54?
The large variation in translations of Acts 7:54 does not concern the word καρδίαν but the word διεπρίοντο. Let me be more specific. Here is my very literal translation of the Greek of the first ...
- 85.9k
1
vote
Is there a chronological issue in Exodus 17,18 and 19?
There is no chronological issue, but there is a personal interlude with Jethro's visit to Moses.
In Chapter 17, they arrive at Rephidim and make camp there ("pitched in rephidim", KJV). All ...
- 8,056
1
vote
Which is the correct translation of Isaiah 63:11?
The first question is who the subject of וַיִּזְכֹּ֥ר is. It could be G-d, or it could be עַמּ֑וֹ meaning His nation. This is the fundamental difference between the translations presented here. Based ...
- 734
1
vote
What is the proper translation of Genesis 25:18?
The literal meaning of the verb נָפַל (nafal) is “fall.” However, in Gen. 25:18, it appears to possess a more idiomatic sense.
According to the 16th ed. of Gesenius’ lexicon,1
f) sich niederlassen, v....
- 10.6k
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