New answers tagged

0

“The Hebrew noun Elohim is plural but the verb is singular, a normal usage in the OT when reference is to the one true God. This use of the plural expresses intensification rather than number and has been called the plural of majesty, or of potentiality.” — (New International Version Study Bible, Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1985, p. 6) “The plural form of ...


2

The title of God in the Hebrew of Gen 1:26, 27 is a single word, אֱלהִים (Elohim). However, there are many places where the title/name of God is two words or a compound word such as: יְהוָ֣ה אֱלֹהִ֑ים (Yahweh Elohim) = "LORD God", eg, Gen 3:1 אֲדֹנָ֣י יְהוִ֗ה (Adonai Yahweh) = "Lord LORD", or Sovereign Lord, eg, Eze 45:9 יְהוָ֣ה ׀ ...


3

There is only one word for God used in Genesis 1:26-27. It is the word "Elohim" (אֱלֹהִ֔ים). In fact, the Hebrew does not include even a pronoun for God in verse 26 where in English the translation uses "us" and "our" to reference God. Hebrew, like Latin languages, e.g. Spanish, includes pronouns with verb "conjugations&...


1

What's the name of the father that Jesus came in? Perhaps this question is equivalent to a similar question: What's the name of The Law that the sheriff, bailiff, police, etc. are referring to when they say "Open the door in the name of the law!"? In this context, it doesn't mean a literal name; it means that the legal system has given this ...


2

‘Name’ had more than one meaning in biblical times; a point lost on most people today. We are inclined to think of what’s written on our birth certificates as our name/s, so your name may be Charles Mbogo, and you are asking if God the Father has a similar personal name designation. While it is true that ‘God’ is a general title and not a personal name, ...


2

The word "name" here has multiple meanings. First, It is often used to designate the person himself. Jesus use this word to refer to himself in John 15:21 They will treat you this way because of my name, for they do not know the one who sent me. Matthew 10:22 and you will be hated by all for my name’s sake. But the one who endures to the end will ...


2

This matter is rather simple - grammatically, there is no justification for making the Hebrew "God" into "as/like God". Even the LXX does not do this. However, I would assume that the various versions that do this (including the ESV!) do so out of an obvious deference to Hebrew theology of monotheism. If we translate, "I have made ...


3

I have given thee a god to Pharaoh [Young's Literal, Exodus 7:1] I have you made a god to Pharaoh [Green's Literal, Exodus 7:1] Pharaoh did not appear to have any god, in the record of Exodus. He does not appeal to any god, he just has magicians who duplicate (some of) the deeds of Moses. He does not argue against the desires of the Hebrews on the basis ...


0

Deuteronomy 6 verses 4-5 both reference HaShem (יְהֹוָ֥ה) declaring The-Name of our God as a proclamation of faith. Devarim 6:4 declares HaShem "The-Name" of The God of . Hear, Yisrael : YHVH is our God; YHVH is one. (שְׁמַ֖ע יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל יְהֹוָ֥ה אֱלֹהֵ֖ינוּ יְהֹוָ֥ה אֶחָֽד) Devarim 6:5 And you shall love YHVH your God, with all your heart and ...


1

Essentially, Jesus asked the same question in Matthew 22:44, Mark 12:36; Luke 20:42–43 and successfully confounded the Jewish leaders! [For completeness, the two words in Ps 110:1 for Lord are different in the Hebrew which the English attempts to distinguish by the different capitalization; LORD = יְהוָֹה = YHWH; Lord = אָדוֹן = adon.] The assertions in ...


Top 50 recent answers are included