19

While @Simply-a-Christian has provided a fine answer to this question, there are a couple more wrinkles that can be added for the sake of completeness. 1. The "PIPI" Representation We know of a tradition of supplying the Tetragram (Y-H-W-H), HaShem, the name of God, in special characters from the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the clearest places to see this is ...


15

No. The tetragrammaton was not used in Jesus' time. Faithful Jews would avoid saying it so as to not transgress the third commandment. The most common circumlocution was "Lord" (Andonai in Hebrew or Kurios in Greek), though he might also be referred to simply as "Heaven." In answer to Jesus using El from the cross. El is the common word for God from all ...


14

These variations in the divine name are not so much about different languages, but different phases of Hebrew. See the YHWH article by Freedman, O'Connor & Ringgren in Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, (Eerdmans, 1986), vol. 5, pp. 500-521. The "contracted" forms are usually used in theophoric names: at the beginning: yəhô- as in יְהוֹאָחָז ...


12

The Tetragram in Hebrew is a proper name, and names do not have articles in Hebrew any more than they do in English. The article "the" arises in OP's KJV example because of the convention (beginning as early as the Septuagint) of representing the divine name by the word "Lord", which then has the knock on effect of requiring an article in English usage. ...


10

I find it interesting to see how many times questions are asked here that impute bias and ill motives to the translators of the NWT. Of course, it is even more interesting to see how often people offering an answer are willing to jump aboard and do the same, since, presumably, those offering answers would be persons more disposed to objective analysis. To ...


9

Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


9

Short answer Why are you expecting Jesus to have said something He did not say? Why He did not add "ὁ ὤν" is best answered "He did not want to say it." Questions of "motive" (why) are often very hard to answer firmly and purely from the text. Longer Answer Based in Exegesis Analysis So the core statement is this (my translation and notes): ...


9

Does Song of Songs 8:6 contain a reference to YHWH? Yes ... and no. "Yes", there is a use of the short form of the divine name, found suffixed to the word of Song 8:6, שַׁלְהֶבֶתְיָה šalhebetyāh, combining the rare word for "flame", שַׁלְהֶבֶת šalhebet (on this analysis, found only here and in Job 15:30 and Ezekiel 21:3) with the final -yah representing the ...


9

The answer to your question is in the text of scripture in verse 10 : Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth ... etc [Acts 4:10 KJV] The 'scholarly source' you request is Peter, the chief apostle, as recorded by Luke. This name is a name which many persons are ashamed to confess and to live ...


8

Jesus spoke primarily Aramaic followed by Hebrew and Greek. Since most of the new testament was written in greek, you will probably never find it recorded that Jesus said "YHWH" in scriptures. This doesn't mean he didn't say it, it's just a translation thing. Furthermore, it was Hebrew tradition to interpose the name Adonai inside of "YHWH" which is ...


7

In the Hebrew Scriptures The Tetragrammaton appears multiple times in the Hebrew Scriptures. Many translations render this as LORD, following the Jewish practice of not pronouncing the Divine Name (though the Jews do write the name in their scriptures). The Jerusalem Bible renders the name as Yahweh, which is a scholarly “best guess” at the original ...


7

The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Koine Greek. Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT) the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation) First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" (...


7

No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


7

Great references @David, but after the exile there appears to be a linguistic aspect to the variations. We can begin by separating the historical phases—pre-exilic, exilic, and post-exilic periods. Many have puzzled over all the variations of the name, because if derived from it they should somehow “resemble” the full name itself (and only one does this—the ...


6

Exo 3:14 and 15 has two verbal forms of the same stem (hwh). The answer in 3:14 is explanatory, but in 3:15 it is literal—YHWH is given as the name. Moses asked about the name and the explanatory reply was “אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה” (ʾehyeh ʾăšer ʾehyeh)—I am that I am or I will be what I will be (S. R. Driver considers it idem per idem construction as in Exo ...


6

The Name revealed in Ex 3:15, "YHWH", comes from "hwh", an earlier variant of the root "hyh", "to be". In contrast to "Ehyeh" of Ex 3:14, it can have two possible meanings depending on its vocalization: qal stem, third person, singular, imperfect form, if vocalized "Yihweh", meaning "he was", "he is", or "he will be", all in a continuing sense, and ...


5

The Tetragrammaton, or "YHWH" which is often pronounced "Yahweh" or "Jehovah", is the proper name of the God of the Bible. The word "Elohim" or any variation thereof ("El", "Eloh", "Elah".. etc) is a title which means simply "God" or more precisely, "Mighty Ones" (in the case of "Elohim", or in the singular for all the others) and not a proper name. Just as ...


5

Verse 15:2 says: וַיֹּאמֶר אַבְרָם אֲדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה מַה תִּתֶּן לִי וְאָנֹכִי הוֹלֵךְ עֲרִירִי וּבֶן מֶשֶׁק בֵּיתִי הוּא דַּמֶּשֶׂק אֱלִיעֶזֶר The phrase at issue here is "אַדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה" -- the word on the right being "Adonai" which literally means "my lords" (note plural), but in context is a reference to God. The word to the left is the Divine four-...


5

Hebrews 1:8-9 was from the Greek Version (The Sepuagint) of Psalm 45:6-7 where the person being originally addressed as is a human king ruling over God's people. Hebrews 1:3 reveals that Jesus is the exact copy of God's being (ὑπόστασις).Thus, he is of same being with God. ὃς ὢν ἀπαύγασμα τῆς δόξης καὶ χαρακτὴρ τῆς ὑποστάσεως αὐτοῦ (Hebrews 1:3 ...


5

It is very odd that Moses would ask in Exodus 3:14, “If I go to the Israelites and tell them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they ask me, ‘What is his name?’—what should I say to them?” Considering that Moses probably knew which God he was speaking to based on the previous statements in the exchange in verse 6 “I am the God of ...


5

No, Vawter is not correct. The Hebrew does likely have two absolute Hebrew word forms next to one another in the construction of הָאֵל֙ בֵּֽית־אֵ֔ל ("the God Bethel"), which can mean an appositional relation ("the God, i.e., Bethel), whereas strictly speaking, "God of Bethel" would have God in a construct form. But Vawter and other such solutions posing ...


5

Pay close attention to the interchanging of the terms. God's commandment in Exodus 3:18 uses the terms "king of Egypt", "YHVH, god of the Hebrews", "our God". The narrator in verse 5:1 uses the terms "Pharaoh" (not "king of Egypt"), and Moses and Aaron address Pharaoh using the terms "YHVH", "god of Israel", "My people". The narrator in verse 5:2 uses the ...


5

As a reference see Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament? The answer is Jesus simply quoted the beginning of Psalm 22 to point us to Psalm 22, which depicts the Crucifixion.


4

In a word, No – the divine name, YHWH, does not appear in any NT text, nor does any NT writer allude to it. Of the many OT quotations in the NT that include the divine name in the original Hebrew texts (e.g. Mt.3:3; 22:37; Mk.12:29; Lk.4:18), none carry 'YHWH' forward into Greek. All use the generic kyrios, or 'Lord', most likely because NT writers almost ...


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