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10 votes
Accepted

1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

Though I've got no issues with the Trinitarian interpretation of these verses, I would suggest that there's a general risk across the New Testament of eisegesis by capitalising the 'S' in spirit. ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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9 votes

What was the name given in Acts 4:12? Was it the Tetragrammaton or the name ''Jesus''?

The answer to your question is in the text of scripture in verse 10 : Be it known unto you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth ... etc [Acts 4:10 KJV] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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6 votes
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Tetragrammaton originally יהיה (yihayah) (3PersMascSing 'exist, be') and subsequently the nominal form (יהוה) (the Being)?

The Name revealed in Ex 3:15, "YHWH", comes from "hwh", an earlier variant of the root "hyh", "to be". In contrast to "Ehyeh" of Ex 3:14, it can have two possible meanings depending on its ...
Johannes's user avatar
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5 votes

The God of Bethel?

No, Vawter is not correct. The Hebrew does likely have two absolute Hebrew word forms next to one another in the construction of הָאֵל֙ בֵּֽית־אֵ֔ל ("the God Bethel"), which can mean an appositional ...
ScottS's user avatar
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5 votes

Why is YHWH, the name of the God, replaced by a title, "the LORD", why is the article "the" used? The 1st of thousands of references, Gen 2:4

The reason why the publishers of the Divine Name King James Bible restored the Divine Name seems to me a good answer to this question. Here is their posting that was posted on September 2, 2015, on ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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5 votes

Based on Zephaniah 3:9 & John 14:14, what Name should All peoples be calling & serving : "Yehovah" or "Iésous"?

This might be a different direction that you were asking (sorry if I misread) Part of the distinction you are seeing is an important change between the Old and New Covenants with the relationship of ...
Brainardo's user avatar
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5 votes

How should the Hebrew ‘ehyeh asher ehyeh’ in Exodus 3:14 be translated in English and what does it mean?

Some would argue that English has no real future tense, only the statement of a 'willingness' for the future. Such is Biblical Hebrew. Earlier forms of the Hebrew language did not have strictly ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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5 votes

1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

Let’s first add the context. At the start of this chapter, Paul was beginning his remarks about spiritual gifts by reminding these Corinthians that they had once been deceived into worshiping idols. ...
Dave's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

The God of Bethel?

The Secularization (and Yahwist Rebranding) of the House of El The purpose of translation is to render into English the intended meaning of the biblical writers. While the ancient etymology of ...
Schuh's user avatar
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4 votes

The God of Bethel?

So the question is "Vawter correct?" is perhaps difficult because all I do not have his book and can neither verify Geir's attribution to him, nor determine what context it is in. But as I see it this ...
Dan S.'s user avatar
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4 votes
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Which words are used for God in the oldest manuscripts of the New Testament?

The oldest manuscripts of the New Testament are all in Greek. Unlike Hebrew, Greek doesn't have very many terms for God. The Greek word for 'God' is θεός (Theos), which is used consistently ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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4 votes

Did the Word of God pre-exist as the Son of God before He was begotten of Mary?

The passage is in Aramaic and is more accurately translated as the plural, "gods:" He answered and said, “But I see four men unbound, walking in the midst of the fire, and they are not hurt; and ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
4 votes

What was the name given in Acts 4:12? Was it the Tetragrammaton or the name ''Jesus''?

Although as Dottard's answer shows that ultimately the savior is God the Father (whose proper name is the Tetragrammaton) acting through His Son incarnate Jesus of Nazareth, and although Peter himself ...
GratefulDisciple's user avatar
4 votes

Matthew 27:46 Why does Jesus not address God as Father?

As a reference see Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament? The answer is Jesus simply quoted the beginning of Psalm 22 to point us to Psalm 22, which depicts the Crucifixion.
Perry Webb's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the name God gave Jesus? John 17:11

καὶ οὐκέτι εἰμὶ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ καὶ αὐτοὶ ἐν τῷ κόσμῳ εἰσίν κἀγὼ πρὸς σὲ ἔρχομαι πάτερ ἅγιε τήρησον αὐτοὺς ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί σου ᾧ δέδωκάς μοι ἵνα ὦσιν ἓν καθὼς ἡμεῖς (John 17:11, Textus Receptus) The Greek ...
Polyhat's user avatar
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4 votes

What is the name God gave Jesus? John 17:11

The short answer - it is both. Names of YHWH in the OT applied to Jesus: "God" Deut 4:35, 6:4, 32:39, Isa 44:6, 45:5, 6; compare Matt 1:22, 23; John 1:1, 18, 20:28, Titus 2:13, Heb 1:8, 9, ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
Accepted

How is "El-Shaddai" translated in the Septuagint?

Let us take the three verses referenced Gen 17:1 - The LXX simply has Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ θεός σου = "I am your God". That is, "El-Shaddai" is not mentioned. Gen 35:11 - The LXX simply ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

How should the Hebrew ‘ehyeh asher ehyeh’ in Exodus 3:14 be translated in English and what does it mean?

My answer was taken from "I AM" - Part 3 with redactions to some portions of it. Let us examine Exodus 3:14. Those Bible translators who follow the King James tradition translate Ex. 3:13-15 ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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4 votes

1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

It is hardly surprising that there were some heated arguments about this point (in a previous question). Every time a trinitarian flags up some scripture that speaks to him or her of the Trinity, anti-...
Anne's user avatar
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4 votes

1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

I'll chime in with a non-Trinitarian view, not because I expect people to agree with me, but for just the opposite reason: the OP sought an explanation of differing viewpoints, and I am the only ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
4 votes

Who is Jesus speaking of in Mark 12:26-27? Who is Jesus referencing as "He" in verse 27?

Actually, the word "He" does not exist in the Greek text at all. Here is my literal translation of the NA28/UBS5 Greek text of Mark 12:27 - οὐκ ἔστιν Θεὸς νεκρῶν ἀλλὰ ζώντων. πολὺ πλανᾶσθε. ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

In Matthew 6:9, what name is Jesus referring to?

When Jesus addressed the crowds on the mount/plain would they have understood "thy name" to be Eil and Elaha (also written as Alaha). See: 'What word did Jesus use for God in Aramaic?' Matthew's ...
Dick Harfield's user avatar
3 votes

What is the significance of the author of Genesis using two different designations for God?

Background As noted in the question, there is a belief that the different names are a result of different sources writing at different times. At Genesis 2:4 the notes of the NET Bible state: ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
3 votes

Why isn't the Tetragrammaton used in Exodus 3:14?

The Name revealed in Ex 3:14 explains the meaning of the Tetragrammaton, either directly or indirectly depending on how the latter is vocalized. We have to take into account two properties of Hebrew ...
Johannes's user avatar
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3 votes

Does Hosea 1:9 contain a reference to the divine name I AM?

It is Possible, but Debated Duane Garrett discusses this in his entry about the verse in Hosea, Joel, Vol. 19A, The New American Commentary (Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers, 1997) He ...
ScottS's user avatar
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3 votes

How is the New World Translation's usage of "Jehovah" controversial?

The question is, "How is the New World Translation's usage of 'Jehovah' controversial?" The concluding question is similar: "In what way is the translators’ decision controversial?"...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

Does the New Testament use the divine name "Yahweh"?

YHWH is not mentioned specifically but it is referred to numerous times in the New Testament by the use of the words name or Lord. Often when "name" is mentioned it refers to YHWH. YHWH in the New ...
William's user avatar
  • 31
3 votes

Did Pharaoh Not Know that the God of the Israelites was the Same as the God of the Hebrews? Were the Terms Not Coterminous at the Time?

Regarding your premise statement: The simple reading of the text implies that Pharaoh did not know who the God of the Israelites was but did know who the God of the Hebrews was. And unlike ...
ScottS's user avatar
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