The phrase 'King of Kings' derives from a kind of superlative phrase common in Hebrew and related languages. The phrase is more about its subject being a sort of archetype or supertype, rather than existing in reference to many different beings. This has been carried over into the Greek here, but is more of a semitic idea which is found in Hebrew and ...
The answer has everything to do with Psalms 2 and Jesus' claim to be king. Judas chose to sarcastically betray Jesus, the "supposed Son of God”, with a kiss. His kiss is deeply ironic. As with the soldiers in the crucifixion, He mocks Jesus in his claim to be the rightful king of Israel.
When Jesus entered Jerusalem on a donkey, ...
First, "Moses and the prophets", or sometimes, "the Law of Moses and the prophets", is a common hendiadys meaning what we now call the OT Hebrew scriptures. John 1:45, Luke 16:29, 31, 24:44, Acts 13:15, 26:22, 28:23, Rom 3:21, etc.
There are many examples of where the NT writers quoted the OT to show that Jesus fulfilled OT prophecies ...
From "The Songs of the Witnesses" :
From everlasting was I poured, from when all did begin,
or ever earth was. When there were no depths to be within -
Then was I brought forth, when no founts with water did abound;
before the mountains were set down, before the hills were found.
I was brought forth before he made the earth or did it dress.
The Pauline dictum about the "killing letter" and "vivifying Spirit" is appropriate to first think about the principles of exegesis, for a theologian should not be enslaved by the letter of any text, but adhere to the spirit, logos, to philosophy: even the revelation cannot bypass philosophy and there is a difficult, heartrendingly so, "marital" relationship ...
כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ
For to me every knee shall bow
Every tongue shall confess.
The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") with a suffixed first person singular personal pronoun. The translation "to me" adds nothing of the translator's opinion. The NIV (quoted in the question) uses "...
The intonations are different in those two quotations: John 17:12 says it with an apparent intonation of a remorse and sadness, as if Jesus said: "how bad that the Scripture is to be fulfilled, for of course I'd rather have it unfulfilled, so that my beloved Judas, whom I made so close to Myself as to make him one of the 12 closest disciples, may not ...
Jesus quotes this passage in Matthew 11:10 :
ιδου εγω αποστελλω τον αγγελον μου προ προσωπου σου ος κατασκευασει την οδον σου εμπροσθεν σου [TR undisputed]
Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. [KJV]
Jesus changes ὁδὸν πρὸ προσώπου μου (assuming either he is quoting the Septuagint, or offering the ...
Jesus did quote the beginning of Psalm 22 on the cross (Matt. 27:46; Mark 15:34; Luke 24:44)
אֵלִ֣י אֵ֭לִי לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי
(Psalm 22:2a, MT)
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
(Matt. 27:46, ESV)
περὶ δὲ τὴν ἐνάτην ὥραν ⸀ἀνεβόησεν ὁ ...
You appear to be well researched regarding this issue. And there is a plethora of content online expounding every angle, every viewpoint. I doubt you’ll come across something ‘new’ on this forum - more likely a rehash of what you’ve already encountered - and put aside?
Nevertheless- Let’s highlight some points for consideration. You say “The biological ...
Is "possessed me" the proper translation... Or is "made me" the correct translation... ?
Believe it or not, there is little difference between (ancient) Greek (the language of the Septuagint) and (modern) English (or even Romanian, for that matter). In all these three (Indo-European) languages,
people have children, and make babies (see James 1:18, where ...
1 Corinthians 15:28 is an allusion to Psalm 110 which indicates that the messiah serves temporarily from God's right hand to subjugate God's enemies and then he delivers the subjugated domain to God so that God alone will rule and God will rule alone:
[Psa 110:1 KJV] 1 [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make ...
This is a good question about the meaning of 1 Cor. 15:28 – how can Jesus eventually be subjected to God if Jesus is God? You also ask for the meaning of the Greek word for ‘subjected’ in that verse.
First, I would suggest that the verse itself shows the meaning of that word in question, as demonstrated in the A.V., for it occurs three times in slightly ...
And the Lord said unto Abram ... Lift up now thine eyes and look from the place where thou art to the northward, and southward, and eastward and westward : for all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it. Genesis 13:14 KJV.
Abraham looked to the horizon, and could see no more, but what God had actually promised him was even further than the eye ...
When Jesus asked for a miracle to be kept secret, was he fulfilling any specific scriptures?
His humble approach fulfilled the prophetic words of Isaiah.
Isaiah 42:1-2 (NASB)
God’s Promise concerning His Servant.
42 “Behold, My Servant, whom I uphold; My chosen one in whom My soul
delights. I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice
Peter and John quoted Psa. 2:1–2 in Acts 4:25–26 and indicate its fulfillment in Acts 4:27:
27 For of a truth against Your holy child Jesus, whom You have anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together,
Yes, Isaiah 50 has often been taken as a Messianic prophecy (I'm offering a New Testament interpretation of an Old Testament text).
Although we do not have direct New Testament discussion of anyone plucking out the hairs of His beard, the other parallels to Jesus are quite clear:
Back: John 19:1
Cheeks: Matt 26:67
Scorn: Luke 23:35
Spittle: Matt 26:67
We could render Paul's statement to mean:
Moses said all these things & the prophets said all these things
Between Moses & the prophets all these things were said
The former cannot be unambiguously reconstructed based on the Old Testament; the best we can do there is acknowledge that there are multiple instances in the New Testament where a ...
Ecclesiasticus 1:1-5 (LXX/Brenton)
All wisdom cometh from the Lord, and is with him for ever, [Vulg.+ "and is before all time."] 2 Who can number the sand of the sea, and the drops of rain, and the days of eternity? 3 Who can find out the height of heaven, and the breadth of the earth, and the deep, and wisdom? 4 Wisdom hath been created before all ...
Exegeting the passage
τῇ δεξιᾷ οὖν τοῦ Θεοῦ ὑψωθεὶς τήν τε ἐπαγγελίαν τοῦ Πνεύματος τοῦ Ἁγίου λαβὼν παρὰ τοῦ Πατρὸς ἐξέχεεν τοῦτο ὃ ὑμεῖς καὶ βλέπετε καὶ ἀκούετε
So then, exalted to the right hand of God, and having received the promise of the Holy Spirit from the Father, he has poured out what you both see and hear. (Acts 2:33 NET)
Beginning with ...
The pronouns may be confusing you. Both pronouns in "He shall see His seed" are Jehova. "His seed" are all who are born again of the water and the spirit (John 3:5) who are in Christ; they become God's spiritual children. Look at it in the YLT version.
"10 And Jehovah hath delighted to bruise him, He hath made him sick, If his ...
While meditating on Psalm 16 I made some observations that I realized were (or at least appear to me to be) the answer to my question. I noticed that the details of the messianic prayer indicate that he is praying while approaching death, which I presume to be the expression of his triumphant faith after his prayers and "strong crying" in Gethsemane:
This answer is for the main question: What is the significance of the three-hour darkness that loomed over the land in verse 33?
One of the main themes of Jesus' death and resurrection is the renewal of all creation.
The three hours of darkness - from noon to three in the afternoon - represent the primordial chaos that existed in Genesis 1:2. There is an ...