The phrase 'King of Kings' derives from a kind of superlative phrase common in Hebrew and related languages. The phrase is more about its subject being a sort of archetype or supertype, rather than existing in reference to many different beings. This has been carried over into the Greek here, but is more of a semitic idea which is found in Hebrew and ...
The Idea in Brief
The Hebrew verb to pierce (כָּרָה = H3738) in Psalm 40:6 is the same triliteral root for the Hebrew verb to prepare (כָּרָה = H3739). For example, this second verb (כָּרָה = H3739) appears translated in 2 Ki 6:23 as "prepared." In other words, both verbs have the exact same triliteral root, but have different meanings. The LXX translators ...
The answer has everything to do with Psalms 2 and Jesus' claim to be king. Judas chose to sarcastically betray Jesus, the "supposed Son of God”, with a kiss. His kiss is deeply ironic. As with the soldiers in the crucifixion, He mocks Jesus in his claim to be the rightful king of Israel.
When Jesus entered Jerusalem on a donkey, ...
First, "Moses and the prophets", or sometimes, "the Law of Moses and the prophets", is a common hendiadys meaning what we now call the OT Hebrew scriptures. John 1:45, Luke 16:29, 31, 24:44, Acts 13:15, 26:22, 28:23, Rom 3:21, etc.
There are many examples of where the NT writers quoted the OT to show that Jesus fulfilled OT prophecies ...
From "The Songs of the Witnesses" :
From everlasting was I poured, from when all did begin,
or ever earth was. When there were no depths to be within -
Then was I brought forth, when no founts with water did abound;
before the mountains were set down, before the hills were found.
I was brought forth before he made the earth or did it dress.
The Pauline dictum about the "killing letter" and "vivifying Spirit" is appropriate to first think about the principles of exegesis, for a theologian should not be enslaved by the letter of any text, but adhere to the spirit, logos, to philosophy: even the revelation cannot bypass philosophy and there is a difficult, heartrendingly so, "marital" relationship ...
כִּי־לִי תִּכְרַ֣ע כָּל־בֶּ֔רֶךְ
For to me every knee shall bow
Every tongue shall confess.
The highlighted לי is the preposition lamed ("to", "for", "toward") with a suffixed first person singular personal pronoun. The translation "to me" adds nothing of the translator's opinion. The NIV (quoted in the question) uses "...
The intonations are different in those two quotations: John 17:12 says it with an apparent intonation of a remorse and sadness, as if Jesus said: "how bad that the Scripture is to be fulfilled, for of course I'd rather have it unfulfilled, so that my beloved Judas, whom I made so close to Myself as to make him one of the 12 closest disciples, may not ...
Jesus quotes this passage in Matthew 11:10 :
ιδου εγω αποστελλω τον αγγελον μου προ προσωπου σου ος κατασκευασει την οδον σου εμπροσθεν σου [TR undisputed]
Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee. [KJV]
Jesus changes ὁδὸν πρὸ προσώπου μου (assuming either he is quoting the Septuagint, or offering the ...
This might be a different direction that you were asking (sorry if I misread)
Part of the distinction you are seeing is an important change between the Old and New Covenants with the relationship of the Covenant Creator and the people with whom He covenants. In the covenant of Moses and Israel, God reveals for the first time His name (YHWH), and permits ...
"it is written" refers to the OT as there was no NT yet.
Matthew 12:39-40 An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign,
and no sign will be given except the sign of the prophet Jonah. For as
Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish,
so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of
Jesus did quote the beginning of Psalm 22 on the cross (Matt. 27:46; Mark 15:34; Luke 24:44)
אֵלִ֣י אֵ֭לִי לָמָ֣ה עֲזַבְתָּ֑נִי
(Psalm 22:2a, MT)
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
(Matt. 27:46, ESV)
περὶ δὲ τὴν ἐνάτην ὥραν ⸀ἀνεβόησεν ὁ ...
You appear to be well researched regarding this issue. And there is a plethora of content online expounding every angle, every viewpoint. I doubt you’ll come across something ‘new’ on this forum - more likely a rehash of what you’ve already encountered - and put aside?
Nevertheless- Let’s highlight some points for consideration. You say “The biological ...
Judgment and remnant
Isaiah has been prophesying about judgment coming upon Israel as a result of her wickedness. Dr. Constable has this to say:
The prophet had just described Assyria cut down like a forest of trees
(10:15-19, 33-34). Likewise, Israel would have only a remnant left after
God finished judging her (10:20-23; cf. 6:11-13). Now he ...
I use this verse and its context to teach a bad use of verses and context. If this verse is used for Jesus being slain on the cross then we would have to make an almost impossible connection between the false prophets and Jesus, something that seems to tie a knot in our hermeneutical stomach.
It is so important to observe that the verse has a connection ...
Is "possessed me" the proper translation... Or is "made me" the correct translation... ?
Believe it or not, there is little difference between (ancient) Greek (the language of the Septuagint) and (modern) English (or even Romanian, for that matter). In all these three (Indo-European) languages,
people have children, and make babies (see James 1:18, where ...
1 Corinthians 15:28 is an allusion to Psalm 110 which indicates that the messiah serves temporarily from God's right hand to subjugate God's enemies and then he delivers the subjugated domain to God so that God alone will rule and God will rule alone:
[Psa 110:1 KJV] 1 [[A Psalm of David.]] The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make ...
This is a good question about the meaning of 1 Cor. 15:28 – how can Jesus eventually be subjected to God if Jesus is God? You also ask for the meaning of the Greek word for ‘subjected’ in that verse.
First, I would suggest that the verse itself shows the meaning of that word in question, as demonstrated in the A.V., for it occurs three times in slightly ...
And the Lord said unto Abram ... Lift up now thine eyes and look from the place where thou art to the northward, and southward, and eastward and westward : for all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it. Genesis 13:14 KJV.
Abraham looked to the horizon, and could see no more, but what God had actually promised him was even further than the eye ...
When Jesus asked for a miracle to be kept secret, was he fulfilling any specific scriptures?
His humble approach fulfilled the prophetic words of Isaiah.
Isaiah 42:1-2 (NASB)
God’s Promise concerning His Servant.
42 “Behold, My Servant, whom I uphold; My chosen one in whom My soul
delights. I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice
Peter and John quoted Psa. 2:1–2 in Acts 4:25–26 and indicate its fulfillment in Acts 4:27:
27 For of a truth against Your holy child Jesus, whom You have anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together,
Yes, Isaiah 50 has often been taken as a Messianic prophecy (I'm offering a New Testament interpretation of an Old Testament text).
Although we do not have direct New Testament discussion of anyone plucking out the hairs of His beard, the other parallels to Jesus are quite clear:
Back: John 19:1
Cheeks: Matt 26:67
Scorn: Luke 23:35
Spittle: Matt 26:67
The prophet Moses spoke about:
The LORD your God will raise up for you a prophet from among your own people, like myself; him you shall heed. 16This is just what you asked of the LORD your God at Horeb, on the day of the Assembly, saying, “Let me not hear the voice of the LORD my God any longer or see this wondrous fire any more, lest I die.” 17Whereupon ...
We could render Paul's statement to mean:
Moses said all these things & the prophets said all these things
Between Moses & the prophets all these things were said
The former cannot be unambiguously reconstructed based on the Old Testament; the best we can do there is acknowledge that there are multiple instances in the New Testament where a ...
As existing answers note: (1) "messiah" (Hebrew mashiach) and "christ" (Greek christos) are equivalent words meaning "anointed one", and in the context of Graeco-Roman Judaism and early Christianity these were technical terms referring to a future agent of divine deliverance. And (2), in the gospel of John, Hebrew and Aramaic words are ...