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2 votes

In Daniel 11:37, is it possible to translate god of his father with "god" lowercase in the singular form?

To start, here is a typical translation of 1 Kings 11:33, which the OP rightly cites as a case where elohim is translated as the singular but uncapitalized "god." For they have forsaken me ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
2 votes
Accepted

Is this Hebrew reading without vocalization dots correct for Leviticus 12:4?

First of all, the text in this section is reliable. There is no reference to any variant in the Versions. If you're curious, here are the Versions: The Status of the text LXX “καὶ τριάκοντα ἡμέρας ...
Epimanes's user avatar
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2 votes

Is this Hebrew reading without vocalization dots correct for Leviticus 12:4?

The issue is whether טֹהַר is a masculine noun with the feminine singular suffix, meaning "her," or is טָהֳרָה a feminine noun. If you remove the masorah, vocalization not in the original ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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2 votes

Masoretic apparatus in Psalm 89 of the Stuttgartensia

This is the minor Masorah, which is a collection of notes by the Masoretes. They correspond to the words in the verse which have the little circle above them. The ל here is an abbreviation of the word ...
ShmuelBenFredricks's user avatar
1 vote
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Is "trumpets" plural in some English translations of Psalm 47:5 based on a textual variant?

Let's take a look at what it says: The Hebrew text of Psalm 47:5 reads "בְּק֣וֹל שׁוֹפָֽר" (bekol shofar), which can literally translate to "with the voice of the shofar" or "...
Jason_'s user avatar
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1 vote

What is the difference in meaning between "The Lord" and the "Lord God?"

This is a significant matter in the Old Testament as demonstrated by king David when he wrote, "The LORD said unto my Lord..." (Psalm 110:1) and Jesus quoted that to make people in the ...
Anne's user avatar
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1 vote

What is the difference in meaning between "The Lord" and the "Lord God?"

אֲדֹנָי (Adonai) is "lord." Traditionally it replaces the tetragrammaton יְהוִ֔ה (yhwh) so that God's actual name is not pronounced. (In most translations when one reads the phrase "the ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote
Accepted

Why does the LXX verse sequence in 1 Kings 11:3-4 differ from HB MT verse sequence of 1 Kings 11:4?

Technically, this is a matter of syntax or phraseology, possibly involving the issue of whether Solomon's imperfect heart led to his sin or vice-versa. The LXX placed the "foreign women" ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
1 vote

Is Psalm 30:13[H] exhorting "my glory" or "my liver" (heart - keveidi[H]) to sing praises to YHVH?

John Brug, in his commentary on the Psalms writes: In verse 13 כָּבוֹד apparently is a synonym for "my soul." (See the comment on Psalm 16:9) Ok, so I turn to his commentary on that verse ...
Epimanes's user avatar
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1 vote

In Daniel 11:37, is it possible to translate god of his father with "god" lowercase in the singular form?

Many versions translate אֱלֹהֵ֤י (plural) and אֱל֖וֹהַּ (singular) in Dan 11:37 with lower case, eg: NIV: He will show no regard for the gods of his ancestors or for the one desired by women, nor ...
Dottard's user avatar
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1 vote

Were NT authors aware of differences between MT and LXX

Any answer to this question is fraught with conjecture, but I will make a stab at it anyway. Take it for what it's worth. In opposition to the idea that people would be aware of textual differences is ...
qianlong's user avatar
1 vote

Can anyone explain this apparent discrepancy between the Greek and Hebrew versions of Isaiah 30:20-21?

The Hebrew translation is probably more accurate as the word Moreh is used for "Teacher" in relation to the word being heard for instruction. This Hebrew word uses the same root as the word &...
Jason Dyess's user avatar

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