22

She was his wife all along. It's just that the word "wife" is used only when the woman is being referred to in relation to the man. In Hebrew the difference between "woman" and "wife" is just a matter of whether there is a possessive suffix. In English we don’t say, "her man" or "his woman" (except with ...


14

Onan's sin was entirely related to his refusal to perform his levirate duty. Quickly about the other three: Coitus interruptus is not masturbation. It is a (very unreliable) method of birth control. Onan was attempting not to get Tamar pregnant because he did not want to provide an heir for his deceased older brother. It was not "theft of Tamar's child." ...


14

The word used in verses 14, 17, and 18 is bətûlîm, “evidence(s) of virginity.” This is from bətûlâ, “virgin”, which is used in verse 19 to describe a woman thus evidenced. It refers to the custom of retaining a blood-stained sheet or cloth from the bed where a marriage is consummated. The blood (dam betulim) is said to “prove” the bride’s virginity as it ...


14

1 Tim 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 all feature the phrase mias gynaikas andra, lit. 'one woman man' or 'one wife husband'. Mounce notes that "This phrase is one of the most difficult phrases in the PE"[1] and he's not wrong. Primarily, there are two ways to interpret mias gynaikas andra: The first we'll call the literalist approach; second, the ...


13

There are three variants of the Greek text here: (a) ... τῇ μεμνηστευμένῃ αὐτῷ γυναικί ... ("his betrothed wife") (b) ... τῇ μεμνηστευμένῃ αὐτῷ ... ("his betrothed") (c) ... τῇ γυναικί αυτου ... ("his wife") Variant (a) is found in the majority of Greek manuscripts, including the Codex Alexandrinus (early 5th century). It is the reading ...


12

Expanded Context This verse cannot be taken in isolation from those immediately around it. So let me quote Gen 2:20b-25 (KJV; slightly reformatted and some Hebrew words noted): but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him. 21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the ...


11

There are two matters here: Marrying siblings was not always a problem but became a problem (as we now know) because of biological problems. Adam and Eve's children must have (almost) all married their siblings!! The prohibition against marrying siblings (Deut 27:22, Lev 20:17) only became an Israelite law under the the Levitical system that was given ...


9

וְדָבַ֣ק ("cleave") Comparing several translations, there is a wide variety on how the verb וְדָבַ֣ק is translated. The NIV uses "is united", ESV "hold fast", NASB "be joined", NRSV "clings", while older translations (KJV, ASV, Douay-Rheims) use "shall cleave". Cleave is an archaic word that is ...


9

Technically, Sarah was Abraham’s HALF-sister, according to Genesis 20:12: Besides, she is indeed my sister, the daughter of my father though not the daughter of my mother, and she became my wife. There are two occasions when Abraham was less than honest regarding his relationship with Sarah, his wife. The first instance is mentioned in Genesis 12:10-20 ...


8

Marriage Prohibitions The two references you give (Dt 7:3, Ez 9:12) explicitly help answer your question (though the Ezra one is technically irrelevant since it was centuries after the time of Samson). Both passages list an explicit set of people when a slightly expanded context is shown: Deut 7:1-3 (KJV) 1When the LORD thy God shall bring thee into the ...


8

Marriage isn't 50-50. It's both parties giving 100%. Dr. Emerson Eggerichs addresses the differences in the commands extensively in his book Love and Respect and on his website, most recently in a September 4 blogpost. This verse doesn't mean that women don't have to love and men don't have to be subject to their wives. Paul was giving instructions about ...


7

There are some helpful reflections in the existing answers, although one flaw affects them all, and it is embedded in the question, as posed, itself... The Meaning of ṢDQ? The flaw is the assumption that Hebrew verb (in Gen 38:26) ṣādaq should be understood here as "righteous", where "righteous" stands for some kind of ethical purity next to holiness (...


7

There is no doubt that polygamy was common in Israel; Elkannah, David, Solomon, Saul, Abraham, Jacob, etc, etc. In 2 Sam 12:8 we find that - I gave your master’s house to you and your master’s wives into your arms. I gave you the house of Israel and Judah, and if that was not enough, I would have given you even more. Thus, among other things, God claims ...


6

[Summarized from Brad Young's Jesus, the Jewish Theologian, pp. 114-116.] Divorce and remarriage are permitted under Jewish law, and Jesus did not prohibit the two acts. However, many Christians have made divorce and remarriage for any reason the same as adultery. There are even Christian denominations which do not allow their ministers to be remarried (the ...


5

The answer to your question is best examined by looking at Onan's sin in the context of the exchange between Judah and Tamar and requires a good understanding and background of the place of women in ancient middle eastern culture and the purpose of Leverite marriage practices. We must remember that this culture had no medicare and no social security. ...


5

This is part of a series of illustrations on interpreting the law[1] We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but ...


5

Based on a comparison of various translations of this passage, it would appear that the conjunction γὰρ does not necessarily always imply a direct dependency. The NETBible, for example, translates it as "in fact". So Jesus appears to be using this conjunction to "pivot" from the Sadducees misunderstanding of marriage in the afterlife, to their ...


5

The related Q&A deals very well with the awkwardnesses of this verse. Here, OP's interest is in whether the Hebrew described there can bear the sense in which YHWH ("The LORD") could be the subject of first clause of Malachi 2:16. The short answer is "no": the sense cannot be "God hates to divorce...", even though some are tempted to see something like ...


4

Rashi cites the Midrash Bereshit Rabba (80:11) as saying that this was a son of Simeon with his sister Dena. the son of the Canaanitess: The son of Dinah, who had been possessed by a Canaanite. When they killed Shechem, Dinah did not want to leave until Simeon swore to her that he would marry her -[Gen. Rabbah (80:11)]. The Midrash Bereshit Rabba cites a ...


4

Regardless of how the particle γὰρ is translated, I don't think a causal relationship between marriage and death can be avoided in these verses. If we take γὰρ in its basic sense of "for", then Jesus seems to be saying that there will be no marriage in the resurrection because there will be no death. To understand why Jesus would say this, we must first ...


4

The instruction from God has nothing to do with rape. 10When thou goest forth to war against thine enemies, and the LORD thy God hath delivered them into thine hands, and thou hast taken them captive, 11And seest among the captives a beautiful woman, and hast a desire unto her, that thou wouldest have her to thy wife; -- Deuteronomy 21:10-11 KJV These ...


4

Paul said in another place : He that is joined to the Lord is one spirit. [I Corinthians 6:17 KJV.] And in that context, Paul says that a physical union results in being : one body with her. [I Corinthians 6:16 KJV.] In I Corinthians 7:39 : The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to ...


4

(1) Can the Ancient Greek of Matthew be read so that there is no contradiction of Mark and Luke? Yes, but not necessarily by understanding the Greek differently. Here is one way to resolve the difference: In the Gospels of Mark and Luke, Jesus' teaching on divorce might represent his teaching on divorce for the typical grounds for divorce in his day, while ...


4

And I gave you your master's house, and your master's wives into your bosom, and gave you the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given to you such and such things. Please note the parallel to another previous passage: Genesis 2:16-17 ¶And the LORD God commanded the man, saying: Of every tree of the garden ...


4

Samson age is never mentioned in the bible but we have this; 30 And Samson said, Let me die with the Philistines. And he bowed himself with all his might; and the house fell upon the lords, and upon all the people that were therein. So the dead which he slew at his death were more than they which he slew in his life. 31 Then his brethren and all the house ...


4

There are numerous places where Mary is explicitly called the Mother of Jesus such as: Matt 1:16 - and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ. Matt 1:18 - This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged in marriage to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to ...


4

Interestingly, in that Matthew 24 quote, Jesus never said, "Don't get married!" He simply warned that a time was coming when pregnant women and those with babies would have the most awful time of it. We know, with hindsight, that he was predicting the brutal fall of Jerusalem in A.D. 70, by the Romans. In 1 Timothy 4, Paul was not saying "It's ...


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