22

She was his wife all along. It's just that the word "wife" is used only when the woman is being referred to in relation to the man. In Hebrew the difference between "woman" and "wife" is just a matter of whether there is a possessive suffix. In English we don’t say, "her man" or "his woman" (except with ...


14

The word used in verses 14, 17, and 18 is bətûlîm, “evidence(s) of virginity.” This is from bətûlâ, “virgin”, which is used in verse 19 to describe a woman thus evidenced. It refers to the custom of retaining a blood-stained sheet or cloth from the bed where a marriage is consummated. The blood (dam betulim) is said to “prove” the bride’s virginity as it ...


14

1 Tim 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 all feature the phrase mias gynaikas andra, lit. 'one woman man' or 'one wife husband'. Mounce notes that "This phrase is one of the most difficult phrases in the PE"[1] and he's not wrong. Primarily, there are two ways to interpret mias gynaikas andra: The first we'll call the literalist approach; second, the ...


13

Onan's sin was entirely related to his refusal to perform his levirate duty. Quickly about the other three: Coitus interruptus is not masturbation. It is a (very unreliable) method of birth control. Onan was attempting not to get Tamar pregnant because he did not want to provide an heir for his deceased older brother. It was not "theft of Tamar's child." ...


13

The translation "rival" for לצרור is an over-literal and uncertain translation, but perhaps the best we can do in English. The MT of Leviticus 18:18 is: וְאִשָּׁ֥ה אֶל־אֲחֹתָ֖הּ לֹ֣א תִקָּ֑ח לִצְרֹ֗ר לְגַלּ֧וֹת עֶרְוָתָ֛הּ עָלֶ֖יהָ בְּחַיֶּֽיהָ The only other verse that we have for direct comparison is I Samuel 1:6 (NIV) Because the LORD had closed ...


13

There are three variants of the Greek text here: (a) ... τῇ μεμνηστευμένῃ αὐτῷ γυναικί ... ("his betrothed wife") (b) ... τῇ μεμνηστευμένῃ αὐτῷ ... ("his betrothed") (c) ... τῇ γυναικί αυτου ... ("his wife") Variant (a) is found in the majority of Greek manuscripts, including the Codex Alexandrinus (early 5th century). It is the reading ...


12

Expanded Context This verse cannot be taken in isolation from those immediately around it. So let me quote Gen 2:20b-25 (KJV; slightly reformatted and some Hebrew words noted): but for Adam there was not found an help meet for him. 21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the ...


9

Marriage Prohibitions The two references you give (Dt 7:3, Ez 9:12) explicitly help answer your question (though the Ezra one is technically irrelevant since it was centuries after the time of Samson). Both passages list an explicit set of people when a slightly expanded context is shown: Deut 7:1-3 (KJV) 1When the LORD thy God shall bring thee into the ...


9

וְדָבַ֣ק ("cleave") Comparing several translations, there is a wide variety on how the verb וְדָבַ֣ק is translated. The NIV uses "is united", ESV "hold fast", NASB "be joined", NRSV "clings", while older translations (KJV, ASV, Douay-Rheims) use "shall cleave". Cleave is an archaic word that is ...


7

There are some helpful reflections in the existing answers, although one flaw affects them all, and it is embedded in the question, as posed, itself... The Meaning of ṢDQ? The flaw is the assumption that Hebrew verb (in Gen 38:26) ṣādaq should be understood here as "righteous", where "righteous" stands for some kind of ethical purity next to holiness (...


6

God-ordained Metaphysical Union These texts indicate a metaphysical union of man and woman as husband and wife. The mystery of becoming "one" is understood to reflect the nature of a complementary joining of the sexes into a new familial unit, as God intended it be, ordinarily attended by the blessing of progeny. [Note: I have not found the key words in ...


6

[Summarized from Brad Young's Jesus, the Jewish Theologian, pp. 114-116.] Divorce and remarriage are permitted under Jewish law, and Jesus did not prohibit the two acts. However, many Christians have made divorce and remarriage for any reason the same as adultery. There are even Christian denominations which do not allow their ministers to be remarried (the ...


6

Marriage isn't 50-50. It's both parties giving 100%. Dr. Emerson Eggerichs addresses the differences in the commands extensively in his book Love and Respect and on his website, most recently in a September 4 blogpost. This verse doesn't mean that women don't have to love and men don't have to be subject to their wives. Paul was giving instructions about ...


5

This is part of a series of illustrations on interpreting the law[1] We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but ...


5

The answer to your question is best examined by looking at Onan's sin in the context of the exchange between Judah and Tamar and requires a good understanding and background of the place of women in ancient middle eastern culture and the purpose of Leverite marriage practices. We must remember that this culture had no medicare and no social security. ...


5

Based on a comparison of various translations of this passage, it would appear that the conjunction γὰρ does not necessarily always imply a direct dependency. The NETBible, for example, translates it as "in fact". So Jesus appears to be using this conjunction to "pivot" from the Sadducees misunderstanding of marriage in the afterlife, to their ...


5

The related Q&A deals very well with the awkwardnesses of this verse. Here, OP's interest is in whether the Hebrew described there can bear the sense in which YHWH ("The LORD") could be the subject of first clause of Malachi 2:16. The short answer is "no": the sense cannot be "God hates to divorce...", even though some are tempted to see something like ...


4

Basically your right it was about status but although the Bible does not describe the ceremony of marriage with a wife there are several bread crumbs that when collected together give us a good idea of the envelope of that ceremony and custom that did take place which would have established the status of a wife above a concubine. There must have been some ...


4

According to the Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible (with judicious editing by me), the Greek phrase from which we get the English phrase "to possess one's own vessel" is probably better translated "how to acquire (get for himself) his own vessel"; that is, that each Christian man should have his own wife so as to avoid fornication (see 1 ...


4

Rashi cites the Midrash Bereshit Rabba (80:11) as saying that this was a son of Simeon with his sister Dena. the son of the Canaanitess: The son of Dinah, who had been possessed by a Canaanite. When they killed Shechem, Dinah did not want to leave until Simeon swore to her that he would marry her -[Gen. Rabbah (80:11)]. The Midrash Bereshit Rabba cites a ...


4

Regardless of how the particle γὰρ is translated, I don't think a causal relationship between marriage and death can be avoided in these verses. If we take γὰρ in its basic sense of "for", then Jesus seems to be saying that there will be no marriage in the resurrection because there will be no death. To understand why Jesus would say this, we must first ...


4

Paul said in another place : He that is joined to the Lord is one spirit. [I Corinthians 6:17 KJV.] And in that context, Paul says that a physical union results in being : one body with her. [I Corinthians 6:16 KJV.] In I Corinthians 7:39 : The wife is bound by the law as long as her husband liveth; but if her husband be dead, she is at liberty to ...


4

(1) Can the Ancient Greek of Matthew be read so that there is no contradiction of Mark and Luke? Yes, but not necessarily by understanding the Greek differently. Here is one way to resolve the difference: In the Gospels of Mark and Luke, Jesus' teaching on divorce might represent his teaching on divorce for the typical grounds for divorce in his day, while ...


3

The bride (or her parents) paid the dowry. If there was a divorce the bride got her money back. Concubines got nothing after a 'divorce' as no dowry was paid. A wife paid to get married, a concubine did not. A contract was drawn up in the case of the wife but not the concubine. This answer is based on deduction from what scriptural refereces there are and ...


3

The law clearly states for most of the nations mentioned in Ezra 9 and 10 that the marriage is illegal (compare the law in Deuteronomy 7:3 to Ezra's own description of the transgression in Ezra 9:12). The response in Ezra 10:3 states explicitly that they will break the marriage covenants "by the law". The marriages never had a legal footing, and are ...


3

Note - I'm relocating my answer from a duplicate question that focused specifically on the translation of μοιχευθῆναι and which translation is best. So my answer is focused on that and not of the broader question of the interpretation of this passage. My original response is below: First, it's worth noting that the vast majority of translations render ...


3

The hebrew word for wife 'ishshah' is the majority of the time translated - wife but has also been translated 2x as harlot, harem 5x, harlot 3x, and simply woman 1x (Strongs Exhaustive Concordance). I agree with the answer above from J.C. Sa*lomon regarding ANE practice but I would add that they didn't have a word for "surrogate", at least I don't see ...


3

The Matthew 20:30 rather clearly states that in Heavens there will be neither act of marriage, nor sexual relationships, for addition of the "they will be like angels in heaven" to the "there will be no marriage" most clearly indicates that there will not be sexual relationships either, for angels do not have such relationships. What is, in fact, Heavenly ...


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