15
votes
Accepted
Should we ONLY say the Lord's Prayer?
Two comments about the instruction of Jesus in Matt 6:9 -
If Jesus had intended that we ONLY pray the prayer He gave we would have the exact wording recorded precisely. However, the version recorded ...
- 113k
7
votes
Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?
The tradition that has come down through the Eastern Church is to interpret ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ as "the evil one". That is how the Lord's Prayer appears in every (Eastern) Orthodox Prayer Book and ...
- 12.5k
6
votes
Is there any significance to the two conjugations of heaven/sky in the Lord's Prayer?
In light of Biblical cosmology, it would be out of character for the author to speak of a particular heaven and not also have in mind a corresponding location with respect to the earth, and the ...
- 9,270
6
votes
Should we ONLY say the Lord's Prayer?
Jesus presents this prayer as a model or example. He is not imposing a rigid formula for prayer. He is providing a framework for prayer. The Lord's Prayer serves as a template such as acknowledging ...
- 9,405
6
votes
Was the Lord's Prayer a typical first century Jewish prayer?
Direct evidence of specific prayers from the pre-Christian era is limited. So, I first turned to the Psalms which can offer valuable insights into the nature and practice of Jewish prayer during this ...
- 9,405
5
votes
"Do not lead us into temptation" is a bad translation?
It is true that the verb here to lead (εἰσενέγκῃς) is a subjunctive, but given the negation μὴ, Wallace and others call this construction a subjunctive of prohibition.
Expressing a prohibition using ...
- 12.2k
4
votes
Is this literal translation of the Lord prayer faithful to the Greek sources?
A Review of the Greek
More or less, this is a so-called 'literal' translation. Exept that it isn't even English in certain places (e.g. "thy will of yours").
On the site itself, it cites the ...
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4
votes
Why not “my Father”? Matthew 6:9
Prefacing the prayer of the Our Father, Jesus says, “Pray, then, in this way.” In this way could mean not only in the same words but also in the same spirit.
from Ellicott's Commentary
(9) After ...
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4
votes
Accepted
Is there any textual evidence that Jewish authorities in Jesus' time have considered praying the 'Our Father' blasphemous?
There is plenty of evidence to show that ancient Israel believed that the LORD (= YHWH) was their true "Father" such as:
Jer 31:9, I [YHWH V7] will make them walk beside streams of waters, ...
- 113k
3
votes
Accepted
Verbs in Lord’s Prayer
The operative verb referenced by the OP in the Lord's prayer is ἐλθέτω from the root verb ἔρχομαι. The form ἐλθέτω is Aorist Imperative Active - 3rd Person Singular. Strictly, this might be ...
- 113k
3
votes
Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?
Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer? Matthew 6:13
καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν, ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.
Matthew 6:13 (NASB)
13 ‘And do not lead us ...
- 14k
3
votes
Accepted
Does the Greek text allow the Pope to change the Lord’s prayer from “and lead us not into temptation” to “and do not let us fall into temptation?
In view of James 1:13, 14 ("God does not tempt us"), Matt 6:13 ("do not lead us into temptation") appears to create a contradiction.
I am not familiar with the pronouncements of Pope Francis so I ...
- 113k
3
votes
Our Father, who art in heaven
Father
It was actually not very common before Jesus arrived on the scene for God to be referred to Father. Baker's Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology notes:
This portrayal, however, is ...
- 7,970
3
votes
Accepted
Why is "deliver us from evil" a possible translation?
The reason it is usually translated as "evil" is because the Greek word "πονηροῦ" is in adjective form. However, its usage in many of these verses is a bit unique, seeing as it is ...
- 5,067
2
votes
Why pray, "lead us not into temptation"?
The operative word here translated "temptation" is πειρασμός (peirasmos). BDAG give the follow meaning:
an attempt to learn the nature or character of something, test trial, eg, 1 Peter 1:...
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2
votes
Why pray, "lead us not into temptation"?
Why pray, “lead us not into temptation”?
Matthew 6:13 (NET Bible)
13 "And do not lead us into temptation, but deliver us from the evil
one."
“lead us not into temptation” or "do not let us ...
- 14k
2
votes
Why pray, "lead us not into temptation"?
The Greek word eispheró is 'to bring in', not 'to lead into'.
The Greek word peirasmos is 'testing', not 'temptation'. Here it is about our testing God's faithfulness.
The text reads: 'Do not let us ...
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2
votes
Why pray, "lead us not into temptation"?
St. Thomas Aquinas, in his Expositio in orationem dominicam a. 6, explains "and lead us not into temptation":
But does God lead one to evil, that he should pray: "Lead us not into ...
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2
votes
Is this literal translation of the Lord prayer faithful to the Greek sources?
As previously noted, the Lord’s Prayer is quoted both in Matthew 6:9-13 and in Luke 11:2b-4.
The Apostolic Bible Polygot translation by Charles Vanderpool is based on a comparison of the Codex ...
- 2,644
2
votes
Is this literal translation of the Lord prayer faithful to the Greek sources?
Allow me to build on the previous comments.
Matthew 6:10
τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον δὸς ἡμῖν σήμερον·the bread of us for-[our]-sustenance give to us this day
I think you are onto something with ...
- 21
2
votes
Is there any significance to the two conjugations of heaven/sky in the Lord's Prayer?
The Lord's prayer is found (apart from Luke) in Matt 6:9-13. The word translated "heaven" or "heavens" is οὐρανός (ouranos). It occurs twice in the the Lord's prayer with two ...
- 113k
2
votes
Verbs in Lord’s Prayer
What's throwing you is the brevity of wording and the use of the subjunctive, the latter of which is increasingly rare in contemporary English.
If it were a simple statement it would just be 'thy ...
2
votes
Verbs in Lord’s Prayer
Q1
The verb here is Ἐλθέτω (elthetō), meaning "to come", and it is in the imperative form (think "commanding" something). Other ways to render this in English would be statements ...
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2
votes
"Pray then like this...Your will be done on earth as it is in heaven" - What does Jesus' inclusion of the petition imply?
Young's Literal Translation renders the relevant section of the Sermon on the Mount:
"Thus therefore pray ye, 'Our Father who [art] in the heavens!
Hallowed be thy name. Thy reign come: Thy will ...
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2
votes
Why is "deliver us from evil" a possible translation?
The phrase in question in Matt 6:13 is:
ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.
The last two words could either be masculine or neuter. If we insist on neuter, then the phrase addresses evil generally.
...
- 113k
1
vote
Why not “my Father”? Matthew 6:9
This is a great question. In Matt 6.6, prayer is described as a private act done in secrecy by the individual:
Matt 6.6 [LEB]:
But whenever you [singular] pray, enter into your[singular]
inner room ...
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1
vote
Verbs in Lord’s Prayer
I won't rehash the Greek imperatives other than to say 3rd person imperatives in Greek are more like a request while 2nd person imperatives are commands.
Dealing what Jesus might have spoken, looking ...
- 21.8k
1
vote
Has there been any research into why the writers of Matthew and Luke used ἐπιούσιος (Epiousios) instead of the original Aramaic?
Matthew 6.11 τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον δὸς ἡμῖν σήμερον
Luke 11.3 τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον δίδου ἡμῖν τὸ καθʼ ἡμέραν
IMHO, Matthew wrote first and Luke the used his work as a source--that's a ...
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