34

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


14

Aramaic was the common spoken toungue in Israel at the time of the NT. It's likely that most conversations among the apostles and with other Israelis were in Aramaic. Hebrew was largely ceremonial at that time. One would think that Aramaic would be a likely language for the NT in general, but if you wanted to be taken seriously as a writer and scholar, ...


10

You have the Greek word κάμηλος meaning camel. You have the Greek word κάμιλος meaning rope. In the Talmud (BT 6, 601, 1. 16) we read that the people of Puimbedita deemed themselves so clever that they could put an elephant through a needle's eye… Some later MSS read in Mark 10, 25 and the two parallel passages κάμιλος, cable, instead of κάμηλος, ...


6

That there was a Greek word for Aramaic (Suristi) and Luke chooses to use the word for Hebrew in these places (tae Hebraidi dialectow) implies that he meant Hebrew instead of Aramaic. Paul, being a Pharisee and trained by Rabban1 Gamaliel the Elder, would certainly know Hebrew. My answer here shows from literature and archeology that Mishnaic Hebrew was ...


6

The same word is found in Mark 10:51 and John 20:16: ραββουνι (rabbouni). Rabbi vs Rabboni (in English translations) The distinction in English versions is related to a choice between translation (using an English word) and transliteration (letter-for-letter copying of the Greek). In Mark 10:51, Rabbi (an established English word, albeit also originally ...


5

You pose a very interesting question. It might be argued that this question is not about a particular text of scripture and therefore should be considered 'off-topic'. I would disagree and I would say that this question is about every text of scripture and that, thus, it should be permitted. First of all in your question heading you ask which is the most ...


5

The Bible places the Exodus around 1440 BCE and therefore Joseph around 1870 BCE. To be able to speak to the pharaohs and the common Egyptian people, Joseph would have needed to speak either Egyptian or a lingua franca known widely enough to be helpful. The Amarna letters may help in this regard, although they are somewhat later, around 1350 BCE. The ...


5

There was lots of writing going on in the second millennium BC; The Egyptians were writing in Egyptian on papyrus and stone; the Babylonians were writing in Akkadian on clay tablets and on stone; the people of Ugarit were writing in Ugaritic; the Hittites in Hittite; the Greeks in Mycenean Greek, and so on. The dating of Moses to around 1400 BC goes back ...


5

The Hebrew dialect of Aramaic (as opposed to Babylonian/Imperial Aramaic, Edessan/Syrian Aramaic and other dialects) was the most common vernacular language of Judea, Samaria and Galilee in the Herodian period. Certain sayings and individual words are left untranslated in the Greek New Testament, or transliterated by sound: Eloi Eloi lama shabachthani = My ...


4

1. Question Restatement What Language did Jesus commonly speak? ... Summaries from expert historical authorities : 2. Short Answer It is more than plausible that multiple languages were spoken colloquially, in Israel, during Jesus' lifetime : Aramaic, Greek, and Mishnaic Hebrew (at the very least by religious scholars). However - outside of Jerusalem - ...


4

What Language Did Jesus Speak Most Often? The scholarly consensus is clear on this issue: Jesus' native tongue was Aramaic, specifically a Galilean dialect of Aramaic. Why Were Jesus' Words Recorded In Greek? It is simple to understand why the Gospels were written in Greek. Most of the communities of early Christians were Greek-speaking; this was ...


4

Mark twice quotes Aramaic speech, once as mentioned in the OP and the second time when he quotes the exact words spoken by Jesus during crucifixion : Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani [Mark 15:4, KJV] Matthew quotes 'Eli Eli ...' the Hebrew of the actual scripture from Psalm 22 which Jesus, in his passion, is speaking. But Mark gives us the actual dialect in ...


3

The entire Old Testament (as represented by the Masoretic Text) is in Hebrew, with the following exceptions in Aramaic (not counting single words): Jeremiah 10:11 Daniel 2:4b-7:28 Ezra 4:8-6:18, 7:12-26 Some portions of the Bible have been proposed to be translations, such as Proverbs 22:17-23:11 as a (very loose) translation of the Egyptian Instruction of ...


3

Lester L. Grabbe says in Ancient Israel, page 117 that there were no pre-eighth century alphabetic writings in the area of Israel and Judah, except for the Gezer calendar which was probably Canaanite, early Hebrew and Canaanite writings being very difficult to distinguish. The spread of alphabetic writing did not antedate the mid-eighth century and not a ...


3

Because it is not the Same Key(s) Being Referenced The "key of the house of David" (Isaiah 22:22 LXX, Brenton) and "key of David" (Rev. 3:7, ESV) are referring to the same "key" (singular), the same concept. But "the keys to the kingdom of heaven" (Matt. 16:19, ESV) is not the key of David. To equate the two would ...


3

Many scholars think that Luke is referring to Aramaic or at the very least that it's ambiguous. For example, the NET Bible just translates it directly as "Aramaic," while the ESV translates it as "Hebrew" but has a note "Or the Hebrew dialect (probably Aramaic)." The issue here is less one of a "language family" as that "Hebrew" also refers to the Jewish ...


3

This question falls in to the category of "speculative translation". That is, a speculation about the meaning of word in a text based a conflated interpretation of the translation of the word into a non-cognate language and it's relation to another word on the non-cognate language. The answer to this type of question in almost all cases is "no&...


3

The main argument boils down to subject matter and prophecies. In academic circles if a book prophesies about some event unambiguously then it must have been written after the event. Isaiah prophesied both about the destruction of Assyria and the babylonian captivity and the destruction of Babylon, so it must have been written after all three of these events,...


3

The apostles spoke in the languages of other nations on the day of Pentecost. If it is the case that some misunderstood, and if it went abroad during those times that 'men can speak in the tongues of angels', then Paul would be aware of such misunderstanding and rather than cause a great deal of strife about something that is difficult (or impossible) to ...


2

First of all, 'Mark' should be recognised as a consummate author, regardless of language. Harold Bloom writes (Jesus and Yahweh: the Names Divine, page 65), “Whoever composed Mark is a genius still too original for us to absorb.” John Carroll says in The Existential Jesus, page 17 that Mark was a virtuoso storyteller. On pages 252-253, Carroll says that the ...


2

The short answer: Most likely, Mark translated the Aramaic in 5:41, 15:22, and 7:34 for the benefit of his Roman readers, some or most of whom may not have read Aramaic. Many Roman citizens could speak Aramaic, particularly traders, shippers, bankers, vendors and the like, but not every Roman could speak it, let alone read and write it. Another answer ...


2

The Sumerians were a non-Semitic, non-Indo-European people who lived in southern Babylonia from 4000-3000 B.C.E. They invented cuneiform writing, and their spiritual beliefs influenced all successive Near Eastern religions, including Judaism, Christianity and Islam. They produced an extensive body of literature, among the oldest in the world. Historically, ...


2

Joseph spoke in the language what the local spoke at the time, i.e., Egyptian language. Genesis 39:23 The warden paid no attention to anything under Joseph's care, because the LORD was with Joseph and gave him success in whatever he did. Joseph was a teenager when he arrived in Egypt. His brain was still adaptable to a new language naturally. He was a ...


2

First of all I have to mention an important thing: In the Tannakh the word "הוא" is usually 'he'. But it can also be "she" - if there is a dot (חיריק - 'khirik') under the letter 'ה', then you have to read the word 'הוא' as 'היא' and that means 'she'. (In the Tannakh sometimes the letters 'ו' and 'י' change between themselves.) (There may ...


2

And God said, “Let there be light,” and there was light. And God saw that the light was good. And God separated the light from the darkness. (Genesis 1:3-4) [ESV] In the context, there is no source of light as the sun and the stars do not come into existence until the fourth day. God simply spoke light into existence. That is to say, God made (i.e. formed, ...


2

Does 1 Corinthians 13:1 indicate the existence of ‘angelic’ languages? I don't think by analyzing the Greek syntax and semantics themselves, one can prove without a doubt the existence of angelic languages. However, it is natural to understand it as such even just reading the verse by itself. Further, Paul had experienced this angelic language some 14 years ...


1

It seems to me that Gad means "fortune" as in good fortune from Leah's lips in Gen 30. Because of the context. She'd had Jacob's first four sons, then Rachel began wrestling with her over Jacob by having the bright idea of 'having' a son(s) by Rachel's maid. Interestingly that maybe was the 'worst' (eventual) tribe--Dan. So then Leah responded via Leah's ...


1

https://www.studylight.org/language-studies/difficult-sayings.html Language Studies Difficult Sayings Is Gad Jacob's son, a troop, fortune or a pagan deity? Isaiah 65:11 "But you are those who forsake the Lord, Who forget My holy mountain, Who prepare a table for Gad, And who furnish a drink offering for Meni" (Isaiah 65:11, NKJV) Gad ...


1

The meaning of Gad is fortune and the phrase "bagad" (Ba' Gad) means the luck come. On Isaiah 65 11 the prophet mention that there was also a foreign God with the same name, and he was dedicate to fortune. The 'troop' meaning related to Gad probably because the blessing of Jacob (Gen 49:19) that "play" with the Hebrew root גדד in the meaning "to gather": ...


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