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Does the Greek word "καί" in James 1:27 create a Distinction ("God [and] the Father", KJV) or Surname ("God the Father", ESV)?

The structure in James 1:27 is τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρὶ which fits Daniel Wallace's example of the Granville Sharp Rule below. This means that God and the Father are the same. Note no article in front of ...
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4 votes

Given that the Greek text for Revelation 5:3-4 twice gives the word for ‘one’, why does the AV twice say ‘man’?

Synonym, but this is about context Not to condescend, but we should know out the door that this is a very good, beginner level question. When we don't find understanding, we tend to look for meaning ...
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Given that the Greek text for Revelation 5:3-4 twice gives the word for ‘one’, why does the AV twice say ‘man’?

οὐδείς Strong 3762 definitely means 'no-one, none, nothing'. There is no Greek word for 'man' in the text : neither anthropos nor aner nor arsen nor arrhen (loosely 'humanity' 'identifiable man' 'male'...
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3 votes

Who gives the word in Acts 9:15 the Father or Jesus?

In Acts chapter 9, Ananias receives a vision and the record states what he heard: "The Lord called to him in a vision..." Ananias replies that this Saul "has done great harm to your ...
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3 votes

Was "ὅστις" in Revelation 1:7 meant to be singular, since John 19:34 says only one of the soldiers pierced Ἰησοῦς?

Soldiers do not act alone or without authority. This situation was explicitly stated in Matt 8:9 - For I myself am a man under authority, with soldiers under me. I tell one to go, and he goes; and ...
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Who gives the word in Acts 9:15 the Father or Jesus?

The answer is in the passage. v5 And he said, “Who are You, Lord?” And He said, “I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting... As there is no mention of anyone else, we have a clear answer.
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3 votes

Why does the KJV put "mine" in italics in Deuteronomy 8:17?

The 1611 edition of the King James Version does not have the word “mine” in Roman-type but Blackletter. Hence, the editors of the original KJV did not add the word “mine” and did indeed translate it ...
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How to understand the KJV translation of Psalms 68:8?

The italicized text shows supplied wording of the KJV translators. The issue isn't the texts available to the translators, but how to translate the Hebrew text. The issue is how to translate זֶ֥ה. ...
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3 votes
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Verbs in Lord’s Prayer

The operative verb referenced by the OP in the Lord's prayer is ἐλθέτω from the root verb ἔρχομαι. The form ἐλθέτω is Aorist Imperative Active - 3rd Person Singular. Strictly, this might be ...
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3 votes

Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?

If you like short answers, I would say 0% since it was not found in the earliest MSS. There would be no incentive for a scribe to remove a verse which fits in perfectly with verse 7. That goes for the ...
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3 votes

Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?

The verse is extremely unlikely to be original, and evidently a latter addition, as the NET Bible notes on John 5:3: 9 tc The majority of later mss (C Θ Ψ 078 ƒ M) add the following to 5:3: “waiting ...
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Is 1 Timothy 3:16 wording so critical that if one wrong word is used, the relationship of Father with Son, and Who became flesh, is made uncertain?

I wish to look at the theological reasons for why the WH/Nestle school could weaken the relationship between Father and Son by not saying God was manifested in flesh at the incarnation. [Verbatim ...
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2 votes

Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?

John 5:4 isn't in the earliest New Testament manuscripts. Here is Bruce Metzger's comment: 5:4 omit verse {A} Ver. 4 is a gloss, whose secondary character is clear from (1) its absence from ...
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2 votes

Verbs in Lord’s Prayer

Q1 The verb here is Ἐλθέτω (elthetō), meaning "to come", and it is in the imperative form (think "commanding" something). Other ways to render this in English would be statements ...
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Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?

The Revised Standard Version and some others omit this fourth verse with the reason given that it was insufficiently supported by earlier text. However, John 5:3 and 7 could not be properly understood ...
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2 votes

Verbs in Lord’s Prayer

What's throwing you is the brevity of wording and the use of the subjunctive, the latter of which is increasingly rare in contemporary English. If it were a simple statement it would just be 'thy ...
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2 votes

Rev 8:7 is it a third part of the trees or third part of earth burned up?

There are two questions raised about Rev 8:7, one textual and the the other interpretive. Let us address these one at a time. Textual Problem The text as per NA28/UBS5, Byzantine, Majority text is as ...
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Is 1 Timothy 3:16 wording so critical that if one wrong word is used, the relationship of Father with Son, and Who became flesh, is made uncertain?

Why did Erasmus in Textus Receptus emend the Nomina Sacra "ΘC" (from Codex Sinaiticus) with "Θεὸς" in [1 Timothy 3:16]? George Howard argues that κς (κύριος) and θς (θεός) were ...
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Was Mal’ak of YHVH מַלְאַ֣ךְ יְהֹוָ֗ה definitive in [2 Kings 19:35], “an angel” (MT) or “the angel” (KJV)?

In Hebrew מַלְאַ֣ךְ יְהוָ֗ה angel is construct, and construct depends on the absolute noun it connects to for the article. But, YHWH doesn't take the article. However, you wouldn't say a LORD. So, ...
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2 votes

Given that the Greek text for Revelation 5:3-4 twice gives the word for ‘one’, why does the AV twice say ‘man’?

Agree with Young’s translation (and Nigel’s comment). Theologically it could be exegetically (and conclusively?) proven that the ‘one’ to open the seals had to be ‘a man’ (as in Kinsman redeemer) - ...
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1 vote

Does the Greek word "καί" in James 1:27 create a Distinction ("God [and] the Father", KJV) or Surname ("God the Father", ESV)?

The phrase "God and Father" refers to the same person. I think some arguments like Sharpe's rule emphasis this. See all other references of "God and father" used in the NT to know ...
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1 vote

Why do English bibles change אַרְצ֗וֹת הַחַיִּֽים from Psalm 116:9 to "Land of the Living"?

English Bibles are not changing a plural into a singular, they are translating. Translation requires expressing the same idea in different languages with different conventions for using singular and ...
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Who gives the word in Acts 9:15 the Father or Jesus?

The Greek word, κύριος (kyrios), according the BDAG has the following meanings: one who is in charge by virtue of possession, owner, eg, Gal 4:1, Matt 20:8, 21:40, Mark 12:9, Luk 20:13, etc one who ...
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1 vote

Who gives the word in Acts 9:15 the Father or Jesus?

Throughout the New Testament in Greek, the word "Lord" (Gr. Κυρίου)(capitalized) is reserved to Jesus Christ. While it is true that Jesus says he speaks the words of the Father, and that ...
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Why does the KJV put "mine" in italics in Deuteronomy 8:17?

וְאָמַרְתָּ֖ בִּלְבָבֶ֑ךָ כֹּחִי֙ וְעֹ֣צֶם יָדִ֔י עָ֥שָׂה לִ֖י אֶת־הַחַ֥יִל הַזֶּֽה׃ (Deut. 8:17, MT BHS) יָדִ֔י -- this noun (hand) is construct with a 1st person singular suffix = "my hand"...
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1 vote

Why does the KJV put "mine" in italics in Deuteronomy 8:17?

The use of italics in Bible translation predates the KJV and is a complex topic. A good introduction is here: Some excerpts: The original KJV of 1611, like its predecessor, the Bishops' Bible, was ...
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Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27?

Early Modern (Elizabethan) English in 1611 did not always follow modern rules of agreement, and indeed it was still in the process of standardization. Much of this sounds awkward to the modern ear: E....
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1 vote

Was "ὅστις" in Revelation 1:7 meant to be singular, since John 19:34 says only one of the soldiers pierced Ἰησοῦς?

The answer here is so simple it's profound. Revelation specifically is addressing eyes. (Even one soldier has two eyes.) Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also ...
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