9
votes
Is it Nebuchadnezzar or Nebuchadrezzar?
The King James Version translators were careful to translate as near as possible to the original.
In this case, the Hebrew spellings are different. In Jeremiah 32:28, "Nebuchadrezzar" is ...
- 4,687
6
votes
Accepted
What does the KJV mean by the word "even"
The word "even" is not represented in the Greek text.
But the sentence is identifying the "Spirit of truth" in the final clause with the "Comforter" in the previous ...
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3
votes
Accepted
How does the KJV translate Revelation 16:16?
Well spotted, a good question.
και συνηγαγεν αυτους is undisputed. That is to say, this is not a matter of the Greek text being different in the KJV (the Textus Receptus) from the other versions (the ...
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3
votes
KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?
I am flummoxed by the OP's question - an extensive survey of sites like this one: https://biblehub.com/parallel/jeremiah/34-16.htm all show that almost all versions have either "you" or &...
- 91.4k
3
votes
Accepted
How best to understand the NLT translation of νόμος in Romans 8:2?
The solid majority of translators use "law of the Spirit" here because that is the literal meaning of the word νόμος. Moreover Paul is clearly contrasting the law of the spirit with the law ...
- 7,531
3
votes
Why does the KJV add more to Matthew 19:9 vs other translations?
The difference between the versions is due to the choice of underlying Greek text:
the ESV, NIV, NASB and most modern versions follow the NA28 and UBS5 text.
the KJV and NKJV follow the Textus ...
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2
votes
What is the difference between “anger” and “wrath”?
Actually, four different words are involved as follows. The words in Eph 4:26 and Col 3:8 are different.
Eph 4:26 "Be angry, and yet do not sin." Let not the sun set upon your wrath
In this ...
- 91.4k
2
votes
Why does the KJV add more to Matthew 19:9 vs other translations?
Bruce Metzger's textual commentary discusses the reason the committee decided on the textual reading for the Greek text usually used in modern translations while the KJV used the Textus Receptus. In ...
- 19.3k
1
vote
Your exceeding great reward vs your reward will be great in Gen 15:1
שְׂכָרְךָ֖ הַרְבֵּ֥ה מְאֹֽד
Only הַרְבֵּ֥ה has the article. However, שְׂכָרְךָ֖ is construct which does not take an article, but the article is understood if its associated absolute has an article. ...
- 19.3k
1
vote
KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?
The difference is one of the few significant and various continuous editorial revisions or differences in the edition of the KJV. Unlike the modern Bible version editions, the difference in KJV are ...
- 4,750
1
vote
KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?
Wycliffe (1382), Coverdale (1535), Matthews Bible (1537), Great Bible (1539), Geneva Bible (1560), and Bishop's Bible (1568) all have 'whom ye'. See Textus Receptus Bibles.
Webster's (1833) and Young'...
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1
vote
KJV - Jeremiah 34:16 why some KJV says "whom ye" and some KJV says "whom he"?
Your question is partly about what that version is supposed to say. The simple answer is to check the printed Bibles, and my copies of what I call the Authorised Version (that's KJV in American) say &...
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1
vote
How does the KJV translate Revelation 16:16?
Great question - how to translate Rev 16:16 - should it be translated "he gathered", or, "they gathered".
Grammatically, the verb συνήγαγεν is 3rd person singular and so it should ...
- 91.4k
1
vote
Did Solomon have 40k or 4k horses/stallls?
A simple evaluation of the texts and a practical understanding of what the texts describe could make for a very realistic understanding...
The words and and for are also two different words.
Horses ...
1
vote
Why is the word "honeycomb", in Luke 24:42, missing from most Bible translations?
You need to study about textual criticism and read some reputed books such as Metzger & Ehrman's The Text of the New Testament, and Stanley Porter's Fundamentals of NT Textual Criticism, to learn ...
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