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17 votes
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How can we reconcile 2 Samuel 6:23 & 2 Samuel 21:7-9?

As a commenter notes, there is a text-critical issue here. The Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible plainly reads "Michal" at this point. However, as the textual notes to the Biblia Hebraica ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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16 votes
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Does the Queen James Bible twist the original language the Scriptures were written in?

the first homophobic reference was in 1946 This may be partially true, or perhaps, true in the sense of a technicality. According to Wikipedia, "the first instance of the English word '...
Matthew's user avatar
  • 356
10 votes

Is it Nebuchadnezzar or Nebuchadrezzar?

The King James Version translators were careful to translate as near as possible to the original. In this case, the Hebrew spellings are different. In Jeremiah 32:28, "Nebuchadrezzar" is ...
Biblasia's user avatar
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9 votes
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Why does the KJV add "desire" to Mark 11:24?

When looking at slightly odd renderings in the KJV (and there are some fascinating ones), it is worth checking on its influences for any clues. And the case of Mark 11:24, along with its parallel in ...
Dɑvïd's user avatar
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9 votes
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How should we understand Gen 31:24 in view of the context (i.e., Laban speaks to Jacob) and an apparent Hebrew language nuance?

The Hebrew phrase in question is מִטּוֹב עַד־רָע (metov ad ra), literally “from good to bad.” According to Gesenius on מן...עד (min...ad),1 There are used in opposition to each other—(α) מִן אֶל … ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
9 votes
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How does the Douay Rheims Bible translate שַׁדַּי as God of Jacob in Psalms 91:1?

The Douay-Rheims version is a translation of the Vulgate. The Vulgate to Psalms seems to have gone through multiple revisions. I looked through all the versions I could find easily and found these ...
b a's user avatar
  • 3,756
8 votes

Why is 2 Peter 1:19 commonly translated with "day star" rather than "Lucifer"?

The Greek word"phosphoros" occurs only here in the New Testament. It can be translated as "Lucifer", light-bringer or light-bearer". As the name assigned to the planet Venus by the ancients, it can ...
user42723's user avatar
  • 126
8 votes

In Rev.5:6, is the "Lamb" one of the "four beasts in the midst of the throne" (KJV)?

If that which is termed 'lamb' is one of the four beasts simply because it is in the midst of the four beasts, then that which is 'lamb' is also a part of the throne (as it is in the midst of the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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8 votes

What are the main Textual Differences between KJV and DRB?

The Douay-Rheims Bible is a translation into English from the Latin Vulgate, which dates to a translation from Hebrew (most of the Old Testament) and Greek (New Testament and some Old Testament ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
8 votes

Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The KJV is translated from the Textus Receptus from the Greek texts of the Computensian Polyglot, from Erasmus, from Beza 1598 and Stephanus 1550. Professor Frederick Scrivener, in 1881, produced a ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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8 votes
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Why is the phrase 'not being myself under the law' missing in 1 Corinthians 9:20 in the KJV?

The phrase in question from the Greek is μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον = not being myself under the law. The MSS that include this phrase include (dates in brackets): P46(200), 01(350), 02(V), 03(IV), 04(V), ...
Dottard's user avatar
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7 votes
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In Psalm 12:6-7 who or what will God preserve from that generation?

The Idea in Brief The received Masoretic Text and its translation into English by the New American Standard Bible appear to be the best rendering of this verse in Hebrew and English, respectively. ...
Joseph's user avatar
  • 16.7k
7 votes

Is "theos" of the Textus Receptus of 1 Timothy 3:16 the original reading?

John William Burgon wrote “The Revision Revised” (1881) to which anyone would have to refer sooner or later to decide if there was any merit in Sir Isaac Newton’s assertions concerning 1 Timothy 3:16. ...
Andrew Shanks's user avatar
7 votes
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Why KJV translated "Χριστοῦ" as "God" in Ephesians 5:21?

The Textus Receptus Greek text for Ephesians 5:21 reads : υποτασσομενοι αλληλοις εν φοβω θεου The KJV translates this as : Submitting yourselves one to another in the fear of God. [KJV 1769] ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.2k
6 votes

In Psalm 12:6-7 who or what will God preserve from that generation?

Ambiguity is present in all languages. Just as the referent of "them" in verse 7 is ambiguous in English, the Hebrew also allows several interpretations, although I think that the "scholars" ...
Susan's user avatar
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6 votes
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Proverbs 26:10 - Are modern translations right to involve an 'archer'?

This has been called "The Most Obscure Verse in Proverbs". Textual and/or translational uncertainties involve nearly every word in the verse1 and they are to some extent inseparable if we want to end ...
Susan's user avatar
  • 26.4k
6 votes

Origin of Pleonastic Phrasology in the Bible

Bullinger designates such a figure of speech as “polyptoton.”1 He categorizes the variety of polyptoton that occur in the Bible. Examples like the ones you quoted are discussed in section “3. Verbs ...
Der Übermensch's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

Why is John 5:4 missing in the NIV?

John 5:4 is a verse that is variously included or excluded in various manuscripts upon which the modern edited versions depend. Thus, the question is purely a textual criticism problem. Of the ...
Dottard's user avatar
  • 105k
6 votes
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What does the KJV mean by the word "even"

The word "even" is not represented in the Greek text. But the sentence is identifying the "Spirit of truth" in the final clause with the "Comforter" in the previous ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar
5 votes
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What manuscripts did people use to create the NIV and KJV? Are the manuscripts used to fashion the NIV older than the KJV?

Both versions use distinct sets of manuscripts for the Old Testament and New Testament. One might say that the NIV uses an "older" Old Testament manuscript on occasion by deferring to the Septuagint ...
user33515's user avatar
  • 12.3k
5 votes

In Mat.11:12 "...the kindom of heaven suffereth violence..." what does "suffereth" mean?

The Greek verb βίαζομαι, biatsomai, is one of a group of verbs which are classed as 'deponent'. There are arguments about how they should be viewed but, put in the simplest terms, they can be viewed ...
Nigel J's user avatar
  • 31.2k
5 votes

Did the Wise Men see the Star of Bethlehem at the east?

From the references, it appears to be saying the magi saw the star in the east; that is, it is their position in the east from which they saw the star. It's not the position of the star in the east. ...
SLM's user avatar
  • 785
5 votes

Did the Wise Men see the Star of Bethlehem at the east?

As you point out, the Magi came from the east, out of Persia or southern Arabia, towards Jerusalem, in the west. Matthew2:1-2 confirms that they saw his star in the east (from whence they came). ...
Lesley's user avatar
  • 8,912
5 votes

What is the significance of the extra comma in Romans 12:2?

Punctuation, like spelling, changes with time. In this case there is no significance that you should be using to interpret the verse, unless you happen to be a student of historical English usage. ...
Caleb's user avatar
  • 5,846

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