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10 votes

What does "wandering stars" mean in Jude 1:13?

"Wandering stars" were understood to be the planets (Gr. planetes - the word used here), whose transit in the sky appeared quite chaotic in antiquity compared to the paths of the other bodies. In ...
user33515's user avatar
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7 votes
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What is the most accurate (original Greek text), and (translation) of Jude 1:4?

The ASV and the KJV are based on a different set of Greek manuscripts, so this might account for part of the difference. According to the apparatus in the 27th edition of the Nestle-Aland Greek New ...
user33515's user avatar
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6 votes

To what dispute is Jude 1:9 referring regarding the body of Moses?

According to the Footnotes on the NIV at BibleGateway Jude 1:9 Jude is alluding to the Jewish Testament of Moses The text of this book, also known as the Assumption of Moses or Ascension of Moses, ...
James Shewey's user avatar
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6 votes

Are the imprisoned spirits in 1 Peter 3:19 human spirits or fallen angels?

Are the imprisoned spirits in 1 Peter 3:19 human spirits or fallen angels? Did the demons worry about being imprisoned by Jesus? Was there a prison for demons at Peter's time. The apostle Peter ...
Ozzie  Ozzie's user avatar
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5 votes
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2 Peter 2:4, is there a punishment, torture or torment before judgement?

So if we try to understand Scripture from a traditional sense the Bible doesn't exactly make sense. So in order to understand Scripture accurately we have to allow the Scripture itself to interpret ...
שייך ליהוה's user avatar
5 votes
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Did Jude 25 mention "σοφῷ" or not?

There are three subjects you touch on: Consistency between different Bible manuscripts Consistency between how any given Bible translation handles the manuscript(s) upon which it is based The nature ...
user33515's user avatar
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5 votes

In Jude 1:3, when and how was the faith "once delivered to the holy"?

Sometimes our viewpoint of the first century church is badly skewed by our Bible-centric approach to faith. We don't intuitively understand how the first generations of church functioned without what ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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Are evil spirits chained or not?

Oh, they are chained all right, just not 'chained' as we might know it. The verses you quote in 2 Peter and Jude harmonise perfectly with another statement about demonic forces in the book of the ...
Anne's user avatar
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5 votes
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Greek Interpretation of Jude 1:24 "without stumbling" - Subject Modified or Object Modified?

This is how I would translate the Greek of Jude 24 - Τῷ δὲ δυναμένῳ φυλάξαι ὑμᾶς ἀπταίστους καὶ στῆσαι κατενώπιον τῆς δόξης αὐτοῦ ἀμώμους ἐν ἀγαλλιάσει = Now to [the one] being able to keep you ...
Dottard's user avatar
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5 votes

Why is Jude 1:5 translated 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua'?

First, in the Greek, "Joshua" and "Jesus" are identical as they both translate Ἰησοῦς (Iesous), compare Matt 1:1, 16, 18, 21, 25, 2:1, etc (Jesus), vs, Acts 7:45, Heb 4:8, Luke 3:...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes

Does Jude 1:13 refer to literal planets or fallen angels?

Jude 1:8-13 (DRB) In like manner these men also defile the flesh, and despise dominion, and blaspheme majesty. 9 When Michael the archangel, disputing with the devil, contended about the body of Moses,...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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Why did Jude use the word “common” to describe salvation in Jude 1:3?

Plese have a look at different other translations too. For instance the ESV (likewise ISV, GNT, NLT, etc.) is rendering: Jude 1:3 ... the salvation we share... (ESV) for ... τῆς κοινῆς ἡμῶν ...
Constantin Jinga's user avatar
4 votes

Are "praying in a tongue", "praying with one's spirit" and "praying in the (Holy) Spirit" interchangeable expressions?

No. Tongues and 'praying in the spirit' are not synonymous. Let's look at some of the background: Confounding factors for interpretation The word 'tongues' is also the term used for 'languages', and ...
Steve can help's user avatar
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4 votes

Does the "Spirit of God" (through Jude) in Jude 1:14 validate the book of Enoch?

If the question is asking whether the Holy Spirit validated Enoch 1 because Jude wrote ‘under the inspiration of the Spirit’ - then this can’t be done exegetical. It can only be argued. It becomes an ...
Dave's user avatar
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3 votes

How does Jude 1:7 say Sodom and Gomorrah serve as examples in undergoing punishment of eternal fire?

In Matthew 10:15, Jesus does not say that Sodom and Gommorah were forgiven. Jesus is making the point that the cities that he had visited had no excuse for not repenting, because he had been there. ...
Michael's user avatar
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3 votes

Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise?

The chart seems useless; e.g., Does it distinguish class from class, or individual from individual ? Well, is archangel a class, or is it an individual ? Since this is more or less what we are trying ...
3 votes
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Which the difference contextual between the kiss of Aaron and Judas' kiss?

In Bible times, as now, the kiss was a symbol of tender affection. The Greek verb, φιλέω (phileó) means either (BDAG): to have a special interest in someone or something, frequently with focus on ...
Dottard's user avatar
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3 votes

Does Jude 1:9 allude to Zechariah 3:2?

Jude verses 9,22-23 Whereas, Michael, the chief–messenger, when, with the adversary, disputing, he was reasoning about the body of Moses, durst not impose on him a defamatory sentence, but said––The ...
davidianwalker's user avatar
3 votes

Was Jesus "reviling Satan" in John 8:44 contrary to the admonition in Jude vss. 8-9?

To revile is to "Call by ill names, abuse, rail at" according to my dictionary. Modern-day language might say, "to rant at". We all know what a rant is! It is a verbal attack of ...
Anne's user avatar
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3 votes

Why might Jude tell us in his Letter that N/T Scripture had been fully delivered to the saints (cf. Jude vs. 3)?

The order of Jude (or texts of the NT in general) in Scripture is often seen as chronological, but there is nothing contained within that requires it. The only chronological stamp would be that it ...
Brainardo's user avatar
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3 votes
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Jude 1:8; which is more accurate KJV or DRB?

I've elsewhere written a more detailed answer with multiple sources cited. To summarize, The Greek New Testament manuscripts include the participle ἐνυπνιαζόμενοι (enypniazomenoi, "dreaming"...
Dan's user avatar
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3 votes
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What is the punishment of eternal fire according to Matt. 18:8, Matt. 25:41, and Jude 7?

The perspective of "eternal fire" in traditional teaching has been to apply the adjective to the person undergoing judgment rather than to the fire. What is the word "eternal" ...
Gina's user avatar
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3 votes

Why is Jude 1:5 translated 'Jesus' instead of 'Joshua'?

In fact that version of the text cannot be a reference to Joshua, because it was not Joshua who "saved a people out of the land of Egypt" and "afterwards destroyed those who did not ...
Stephen Disraeli's user avatar

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