As often is the case, it is both grammar and dogma/theology that has rendered 'God' - but mostly dogma. The key to understanding difficult or strange passages is to seek other verses input and the consistent message God has left through the whole text.
If we eliminate the bias that has crept into the text we will see this consistent message clearly. We can ...
The simple answer is "yes" in the sense that Jesus is discussing. The problem is the preposition usually translated "again" which is ἄνωθεν (anóthen) in John 3:3, 7. It occurs just 13 times in the NT and mostly means either:
"from the beginning", Luke 1:3, Acts 26:5
more often "from above", Matt 27;51, Mark 15:38, ...
The reason for the difference in translation of these two passages, John 10:33 vs Acts 28:6 is subtle. For completeness let me list the two:
John 10:33 - ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν Θεόν = because you being human make yourself God
Acts 28:6 - αὐτὸν εἶναι θεόν = he is a god
Grammatically, the two are slightly different with different coupling verbs ...
In English "a god" specifies a particular instance. It is an instantiation of the abstract notion of "god". The difference is
quantitative vs qualitative or
concrete vs abstract or
particular vs general.
Acts 28:4 When the islanders saw the snake hanging from his hand, they said to each other, “This [concrete] man must be a [...
It is important to note that John 10:33 was spoken by Jesus' opponents
(New International Version):
"We are not stoning you for any good work," they replied, "but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God."
Noun - Accusative Masculine Singular
Strong's Greek 2316: A deity, especially the supreme Divinity; ...
Jesus answered him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again[b] he cannot see the kingdom of God.” (John 3:3 ESV)
b. Or from above; the Greek is purposely ambiguous and can mean both again and from above; also verse 7
As the ESV translator states, the Greek ἄνωθεν means either again or above and is purposely ambiguous. It is ...
The verb σκηνόω is literally "I encamp", but idiomatically, "I dwell" or "I live among", etc.
This John 1:14 is correctly translated by most versions as "made his dwelling among us".
In my opinion, the primary precedent is to make a complete contrast with one text and a continuation of another text.
Yes, surely, also the OT prophets should be born anew, in Holy Spirit, in order to enter the Kingdom of Heaven, which means that before Christ's crucifying and destroying the sin of humanity on Cross, the sin that has infected humanity since Adam's fall and His death and resurrection, the prophets are not yet in the Kingdom of Heaven. Yet, we also definitely ...
One’s understanding of being ‘born again’ will depend on the foundation of your theology. There are doctrinal answers. What follows is for consideration - as some will definitely have a different view.
Believers being ‘born again’, ‘reborn’ is something that some take allegorically, or metaphorically. But it is something that is literal. Not ‘physical’, but ...
These examples (among many others) are intended to convey a simple truth - God is God and Jesus is the son of God. This must be really important as all the NT writers keep repeating themselves - echoing Jesus' words of the same truth.
One is sent to reveal the other.
One (Jesus) has a God, the other IS God.
If they were one substance, this would also have ...
In Romans 8:34, what does it mean that Jesus “intercedes”?
Romans 8:34 NASB
34 who is the one who condemns? Christ Jesus is He who died, but
rather, was [a]raised, who is at the right hand of God, who also
intercedes for us.
We are all sinners. (Romans 3:23) Sin puts a barrier between us and God, and it leads to death. (Romans 6:23) But Jesus serves as “...
I think the answer here has to do with the complexities and subtleties of verb tenses which goes beyond the basics of grammar. Here is a simple classification of tense appropriate for both English and Greek. I will be only discussing the indicative mood.
I do not intend to discuss this in detail except to note that verb aspect usually includes the &...
There are two distinct matters here.
John 7:52 - There is no prophecy in the OT concerning a significant prophet arising from Galilee. However, in their enthusiasm to discredit Jesus, the Jews had conveniently forgotten Jonah who had come from Gathhepher, a town in Zebulun on lower Galilee. 2 Kings 14:25.
The town of Nazareth itself in Nazareth was a ...
The short answer is that water as used in John 3:5 is a metonym for blood, particularly, the blood of Jesus.
It is important to note that the text of John 3:5, and really, the entire discourse Jesus had with Nicodemus coupled with the narrative that follows in the rest of the chapter, is buttressed on the one side by the story of the changing of water into ...
As I discuss in this answer to a similar question, there is no indefinite article in Greek. A literal translation would be "God."1
They were waiting for him to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But when they had waited a long time and saw no misfortune come to him, they changed their minds and said that he was [a] God.
A translator's decision ...
The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” (John 10:33 ESV)
ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σε ἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν
The answer is straight forward. The Greek language of that period ...